Đề thi vào lớp 10 Chuyên Anh THPT Chuyên Quốc học Huế năm 2023-2024

Đáp án Đề thi vào lớp 10 Chuyên Anh THPT Chuyên Quốc học Huế năm 2023-2024 - Trang 1

Cập nhật mới nhất về Đề thi vào lớp 10 Chuyên Anh THPT Chuyên Quốc học - Huế năm 2023-2024 kèm theo có đáp án chính thức và file nghe (audio), do Sở Giáo dục đào tạo Thừa Thiên Huế tổ chức vào ngày 04/06/2023. Bài thi môn Tiếng Anh gồm 5 phần: 1. Listening; 2. Vocabulary & Grammar; 3. Reading; 4; Writing và phần thi nói (Speaking) diễn ra vào ngày 05/06.

Kỳ thi Tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT trên địa bàn tỉnh Thừa Thiên Huế diễn ra trong 03 ngày, thu hút 15.245 thí sinh tham dự để xét tuyển vào các trường THPT công lập và THPT Chuyên tại tỉnh. Thí sinh thi vào trường THPT Chuyên Quốc học hoàn thành 03 bài thi bắt buộc (Toán, Văn và Ngoại ngữ (Tiếng Anh)) và 1 môn Chuyên. Kết quả sẽ thi được Sở GD&ĐT công bố chính thức vào chiều 17/06.

Tải xuống: Đề thi vào lớp 10 Chuyên Anh THPT Chuyên Quốc học Huế năm 2023-2024

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC

(Đáp án có 03 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC

NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

I. LISTENING

PART 1.

0,2 point/1 correct answer    1     alone/on her own/by herself

      2     60/sixty kilometres/km

      3     Internet (connection)

      4     friendship

      5     walking

      6     friendly

      7     May

      8     sense of humour

      9     hills

      10    farmer

PART 2.

0,2 point/1 correct answer    11    B

      12    C

      13    C

      14    B

      15    D

      16    C

      17    G

      18    A

      19    E

      20    F

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

0,1 point/1 correct answer    1     B

      2     A

      3     A

      4     B

      5     C

      6     D

      7     B

      8     B

      9     C

      10    D

      11    A

      12    D

      13    B

      14    C

      15    D

      16    B

      17    A

      18    B

      19    D

      20    D

      21    A

      22    A

      23    B

      24    C

      25    A

      26    B

      27    D

      28    B

      29    A

      30    B

III. READING

PART 1.

0,2 point/1 correct answer    1     comparison

      2     fatalities

      3     solitary

      4     underestimated

      5     precautions

PART 2.

0,2 point/1 correct answer    1     all

      2     what/as

      3     neither/nor

      4     left/quit

      5     Despite/After

      6     to

      7     unable

      8     was

      9     where

      10    achievements

PART 3.

0,2 point/1 correct answer    1     D

      2     D

      3     A

      4     B

      5     C

PART 4.

0,1 point/1 correct answer    1     B

      2     A

      3     C

      4     A

      5     B

      6     D

      7     A

      8     B

      9     D

      10    C

IV. WRITING

PART 1.

0,2 point/1 correct answer    1     intention of giving you any more money

      2     had they arrived when the meeting was delayed

      3     had taken a proper map, you wouldn't have got/gotten lost

      4     no instant solution to this problem

      5     the act of driving a stolen vehicle, he was arrested

PART 2.

0,2 point/1 correct answer    1     my surprise, it turned out

      2     to put/get it across (to him)

      3     at the second attempt

      4     no equivalent to

      5     often goes back on his

PART 3.

3 points          The mark given to Part 3 is based on the following scheme: 

1. Content: 35% of total mark

- Providing all main ideas and details as required 

- Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively 

2. Organization and presentation: 30% of total mark

- Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion and clarity. 

- The essay is well- structured

3. Language: 30% of total mark

- Demonstration of n variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 

- Good use and control of grammatical structures

4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5 % of total mark  

- Intelligible handwriting

- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes         

V. SPEAKING

- Pronunciation and intonation: 0,6 point

- Grammatical range and accuracy: 0,6 point

- Lexical resource: 0,6 point

- Fluency and coherence: 0,6 point

- Content: 0,6 point

Nội dung Đề thi vào lớp 10 Chuyên Anh THPT Chuyên Quốc học Huế năm 2023-2024

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC

NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Điểm

(Bằng số và bằng chữ)   Họ tên, chữ ký cán bộ chấm thi 1:   Mã phách

      Họ tên, chữ ký cán bộ chấm thi 2:   

*Ghi chú:   - Thí sinh làm bài trên đề thi và không ghi vào phần trên;

-     Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

I.    LISTENING (2 points)

The listening test has TWO parts. You will hear each part TWICE. At the beginning or each part, you will have time to read the questions and at the end, you will have time to check your answers.

Part 1: You will hear artist Leonie Meyer talking about making new friends online. For questions 1-10, complete each of the sentences with a word or a short phrase. You now have 45 seconds to look at part 1. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (2 points)

1.    Leonie decided to make friends with people online because she nearly always works   .

2.    Leonie's home is more than    from the nearest town.

3.    When Leonie moved into her cottage, there was no      there.

4.    Leonie registered on a  website.

5.    In her personal profile, Leonie said she was looking for someone who enjoyed  .

6.    Leonie described herself as a       person.

7.    Nobody interesting contacted Leonie through the website until     last year.

8.    Leonie says she wanted to be friends with Hannah because their    was similar.

9.    Leonie and Hannah often go to the   together.

10.   Leonie's friend, Nina, now works as a     .

Part 2: You will hear a guide at a tourist attraction called Oniton Hall talking to a group of visitors. For questions 11-20, choose the correct answers. (2 points)

Questions 11 – 14

Choose the correct letter A, B or C and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

Oniton Hall

11.   Many past owners made changes to    .

A.    the gardens

B.    the house

C.    the farm

12.   Sir Edward Downes built Oniton Hall because he wanted       .

A.    a place for discussing politics

B.    a place to display his wealth

C.    a place for artists and writers

13.   Visitors can learn about the work of servants in the past from    .

A.    audio guides

B.    photographs

C.    people in costume

14.   What is new for children at Oniton Hall?

A.    clothes for dressing up

B.    mini tractors

C.    the adventure playground

Questions 15-20

Which activity is offered at each of the following locations on the farm?

Choose SIX answers from A-H and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

Activities  Locations on the farm

A  shopping 

B watching cows being milked  15    dairy ……………………...

C  seeing old farming equipment     16    large barn  ……………………...

D  eating and drinking  17    small barn  ……………………...

E  starting a trip      18    stables     ……………………...

F seeing rare breeds of animals     19    shed  ……………………...

G helping to look after animals     20    parkland    ……………………...

H using farming tools               

II.   VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3 POINTS)

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

1.    This morning traffic was      by an accident outside the town hall.

A. held off B. held up  C. held out D. held in

2.    Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process;       experts must perform detail tests to analyze soil specimens.

A. therefore      B. afterward      C. so that  D. however

3.    I'd advise  your tickets well in advance if you want to travel in August.

A. buying   B. to buy   C. buy      D. bought

4.    Busy  he was, he still came to the airport to see us off.

A. despite  B. through  C. even if  D. however

5.    It is imperative that this letter   immediately

A. was sent B. sent     C. be sent  D. being sent

6.    Choose the word or phrase which is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined and bold part: She's been very ill, but luckily she is on the mend now.

A. keeping up     B. making off     C. setting over   D. getting better

7.    Choose the word or phrase which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined and bold part: Vaccinating 80% of the population could retard the progression of the contagious disease.

A. slow down      B. speed up C. fasten   D. complete

8.    It was      day that we decided to stay in.

A. such hot B. so hot a C. too hot a      D. a so hot

9.    We should make a clear  between "inquisitive" and "curious" for the purposes of our discussion.

A. separation     B. division C. distinction    D. discrimination

10.   Choose the underlined and bold part that needs correction in the following statement:

Mary had a glow of pride on her face when she won the award for her project and beaten all her classmates.

A. a glow of pride      B. won      C. for her project      D. beaten all

11.   The student's language skills improved    and he passed the final exam with flying colors.

A.    by leaps and bounds     B. by and by

C. by and large   D. by heart

12.   Having been selected to represent the company,  .

A.    the members applauded   B. a speech had to be given by him

C. the members congratulated him    D. he gave a short speech

13.   Either John or his brothers   the keys to the car.

A. has taken      B. have taken     C. has been taken D. have been taken

14.   On their return they discovered that their house had been   .

A. stolen   B. robbed   C. burgled  D. thieved

15.   Peter and Mary are talking about social networks.

-     Peter: “Using social networks may have negative effects on students.”

-     Mary: “     . It distracts them from their studies.”

A.    I'm not sure      B. I don't quite agree

C. You're wrong   D. That's quite true to learn more about it.

16.         heard about that subject, I   .

A.    Were I / would try      B. Had I / would have tried

C. If had I / would have tried      D. I was / would try

17.   It was      whether he would be allowed to compete in the games.

A. touch and go   B. spick and span C. safe and sound D. ups and downs

18.   The prices of Japanese cars are     of Chinese ones.

A.    higher than that  B. higher than those

C. higher than which    D. as high as that

19.   Only half of the exercises    so far, but the rest by Saturday.

A have done / will be finished      B. done / have been finished

C were done / are going to be finished    D. have been done / will have been finished

20.   I can't stand Mr. Brian. He's always blowing his own  telling everyone how good he is at everything

A. balloon  B. breath   C. mind     D. trumpet

21.   David's compositions are full of mistakes but they are very       .

A. imaginative    B. imaginary      C. imaginationD. imaginable

22.   Although I really liked the dress I found for my sister's wedding. I decided to      better bargain.

A. shop around    B. shell out      C. ring up  D. sell out

23.   Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new      in the field and possibly lead to a cure.

A. earth    B. ground   C. soil     D. land

24.   After three days in the desert, his mind began to play      on him.

A. games    B. jokes    C. tricks   D. fun

25.   Unfortunately, the injury may keep him out of football      . He may never play again.

A. for good B. now and then   C. once in a while      D. every so often

26.   Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for     materials

A. live     B. raw      C. crude    D. rude

27.   The police want to question a man   connection with the robbery.

A. at B. on C. for      D. in

28.   John is more qualified, but Sarah   the advantage of more hands-on experience.

A. takes    B. has      C. pays     D. gives

29.   He was      defeated in the final run-off election by Jacques Chirac in 1995.

A. narrowly B. tightly  C. finely   D. thinly

30.         the film's director, Ben Affleck, was famously left off the 85th Oscar's Best Director list of nominees surprised everyone

A. What     B. That     C. Although D. Due to

III.  READING (5 POINTS)

Part 1: Read the passage and fill each gap with the correct form of the word in brackets. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1 point)

Black Widow Spider

The black widow spider's notoriety is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has led to certain _misconception_ (0. concept) regarding its evil nature.

Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as it is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most venomous species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects such as amount of venom by     (1. compare) that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact,

      (2. fatal) are rare.

Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult female is poisonousThose most at risk from the female are the spider's natural pray-insects-and male black widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is        (3. solitude) by nature, and has been known to kill and eat the male after mating. Such occurrences are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name - and its reputation.

Nevertheless, the unpleasant effects of this spider's bite should not be       (4. estimate), and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take       (5. caution). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are resistant to many insecticides, you should regularly clean out likely hiding places.

PART 2 (1 point)

Read the passage and think of the word which best fits each blank. Use only ONE word in each blank. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

Albert Einstein (1879 – 1955)

Albert Einstein is (0) _one_ of the best-known scientists of the 20th century. Yet he was not a particularly good student. At school in Munich, he got reasonable grades in nearly (1)                subjects and was outstanding in mathematics and physics but he disliked doing (2)         he was told. He didn't like exams and (3)       did he like attending classes, so he (4)  school early.

(5)   filing the entrance exam, Einstein was eventually admitted (6)    the Swiss Federal Institute of Technology in Zurich in 1896. Although he did fairly well, he was (7)        to get a job in a university after graduation, mainly because he (8)    thought to be extremely lazy. Instead, he worked in a secondary school, (9)    he taught mathematics and physics both of which he was good at.

Some two years later, in 1902, Einstein got a job as a low grade clerk in Bern. In 1905 his special theory of relativity was published – one of the greatest intellectual (10)       in the history of human thought.

Part 3: Read the passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1 point)

Dolphins are one of the most intelligent species on the planet, which makes them a very interesting animal to scientists. In their natural habitats, dolphins use various vocalisation techniques. They whistle and squeak to recognize members of their pod, identify and protect their young, and call out warnings of danger. They also make clicking sounds used for echolocation to find food and obstacles in dark and murky waters.

Amazingly, the whistling sound that the bottlenose dolphin makes has been found to have a similar pattern to human language. They always make conversational sounds when they greet each other. If you listen to dolphins' squeaks and squeals, it will sound like they are having a conversation.

Dolphins usually use both sound and body language to communicate with each other. It is through gesture and body language, however, that most of their communication with humans comes. Dolphins can be trained to perform complicated tricks. This suggests they have a high level of intelligence and communication capacity. If they work for a long time with a trainer, they are able to recognize and understand human commands.

A lot of dolphin communication has been studied using dolphins in captive environments. These studies have been criticized because some marine biologists believe that dolphins living in aquariums or research centres cannot be considered "normal". Even so, most believe that studying dolphin communication in captivity is useful for beginning to understand the complexity of dolphin communication. After all, dolphins are one of the most intelligent animals. Their ability to communicate is impressive and worthy of study.

1.    What is the passage mainly about?

A.    Intelligent mammals in captivity    B. Complex patterns in dolphin life

C. Dolphins' social tendencies with humans      D. Communications in dolphins

2.    What are the common ways for a dolphin to communicate?

A.    Swimming speeds   B. Human voice imitation

C. Squeaking and squealing sounds   D. Vocalisations and body language

3.    All of the following are true about dolphin communication EXCEPT  .

A.    dolphins' sounds are sometimes used to greet humans

B.    dolphins' squeals and squeaks sound like conversations to the human ear.

C.    communication using sounds and gestures occurs between with humans.

D.    body language and gestures are used for communication with humans.

4.    The word capacity in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to   .

A. simplicity     B. ability  C. probability    D. productivity

5.    Why do dolphins use their communication skills with each other?

A.    To prove that they are happy and useful in captivity

B.    To make beautiful music and to find food

C.    To recognize, protect and communicate with each other

D.    To trick humans into thinking they are intelligent

Part 4: Read the passage and choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1 point)

Knowing what to expect from your destination will make all aspects of planning an adventure trip easier, as well as helping you to (0)    the most out of the experience. Research will help you pick the best places to go but you'll also learn what you need to pack, what health and safety (1)   to take, and what cultural (and sometimes political) issues you should be (2)       of.

Climate and seasonal pricing are important (3)   in your decision about when to go. (4)

      for adventure travel, bad weather or weather you're not (5)       . for can ruin the trip. While you can't predict the (6)    weather in advance, you can learn about climate trends ahead of time when doing your destination research. Seasonal popularity and pricing should also be considered if you intend to (7)       peak-season crowds and prices.

While some research is absolutely (8)     , don't plan every moment of your trip in advance. Over-planning tends to make us less (9)            to take part in the unpredictable and spontaneous

(10)  that are part of any sort of adventure travel. It's really important to keep a big reserve of excitement and energy ready for the unexpected.

0. A. take  B. get      C. find     D. set

1. A. insurance   B. precautions    C. warnings D. information

2. A. aware B. familiar C. informed D. knowledgeable

3. A. points      B. reasons  C. factors  D. details

4. A. Especially  B. Exceptionally  C. Definitely     D. Necessarily

5. A. anticipated B. prepared C. expected D. planned

6. A. accurate    B. correct  C. true     D. exact

7. A. keep away from    B. keep out C. keep off D. keep up with

8. A. needed      B. essential      C. ideal    D. useful

9. A. curious     B. interested     C. appreciative   D. willing

10. A. circumstances    B. performances   C. events   D. chances

IV.   WRITING (5 POINTS)

Part 1: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar in meaning as possible to the one printed before it. (1 point)

1.    I'm certainly not going to give you any more money.

I have no   .

2.    Immediately after their arrival, the meeting was delayed.

Barely      .

3.    You got lost because you didn't take a proper map.

If you      .

4.    This problem cannot be solved instantly.

There is    .

5.    He was arrested when they caught him driving a stolen vehicle.

Being caught in   .

Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence in such way it has the closest meaning to the original one, using the WORD given. Do not change this word. You must use between THREE and SIX words, including the word given. (1 point)

1.    I was surprised to discover that the hotel was a long way from the city centre. TURNED

To    that the hotel was a long way from the city centre.

2.    I failed to make him understand that I didn't want to see him anymore. ACROSS

I failed    that I didn't want to see him anymore.

3.    Tim won the 100 metres gold medal when he tried for the second time. ATTEMPT

Tim won the 100 metres gold medal   .

4.    There is nothing exactly the same as this word in any other language. EQUIVALENT

There is    .

5.    Neil is unreliable and often breaks his promise. GOES

Neil is unreliable and  .

Part 3: Write an essay on the following topic. (3 points)

A lot of places in the world rely on tourism as a main source of income.

Unfortunately, tourism can also be a source of problems if it is not managed correctly.

Describe the advantages and disadvantages of tourism in the modern world. Do you think that benefits of tourism outweigh its drawbacks?

You should write between 200 and 250 words.

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