Đề thi chuyên Tiếng Anh vào trường Trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Quang Diêu, Đồng Tháp năm học 2023-2024

Đề thi chuyên Tiếng Anh vào trường Trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Quang Diêu, Đồng Tháp năm học 2023-2024

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Tải xuống: Đề thi chuyên Tiếng Anh vào trường Trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Quang Diêu, Đồng Tháp năm học 2023-2024
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(Đề gồm có 06 trang) 


NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên) 

Ngày thi: 10/6/2023 

Thời gian làm bài. 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề 


I. LISTENING (2.0 points) 

Part 1. You will hear a woman calling Laverton Arts Centre for some information. Listen and choose the correct answer A, B, or C. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (1.2 points) 

1. Becoming a Friend of Laverton Arts Centre________. 

A. costs £15 B. costs £50 C. doesn’t cost anything 2. How many newsletters do Friends receive each year? 

A. four B. one C. three 

3. Friends of the Arts Centre can buy________. 

A. more tickets than other visitors 

B. tickets before other visitors 

C. books earlier than other visitors 

4. There might be reductions on tickets for events________. 

A. in the Small Theatre 

B. in the Main Theatre 

C. at the Arts Cinema 

5. The Arts Centre is changing________. 

A. the password for its website 

B. its website address 

C. the design of its website 

6. Friends of Laverton Arts Centre are________. 

A. required to attend a certain number of events 

B. not forced to attend a certain number of events 

C. encouraged to count how many events they attend 

Part 2. You will hear a man interviewing a woman in the street about her use of transport. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer on the answer sheet. (0.8 point)


Name: Luisa (1) _______ 

Address: (2) _______ White Stone Rd 

Area: Bradfield 

Postcode: (3) _______ 

Occupation: (4) _______ 

Reason for visit to town: to go to the dentist's

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3.0 points) 

A. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete each sentence and write it on the answer sheet. (1.0 point) 

1. The boy, along with his two classmates ________ the wall of the newly-built house now. A. are painting B. is painting C. has been painting D. have been painted 2. The factory where my uncle is working is said ________ by fire last week A. to be destroyed B. to destroy 

C. to have been destroyed D. to have destroy 

3. Where's the ________ dress that your grandma gave you? 

A. lovely long silk B. lovely silk long 

C. long silk lovely D. silk long lovely 

4. I think nobody is living in this house now, ________? 

A. don't I B. are they C. is he D. do I 5. It is strongly recommended that the machine ________ everyday. 

A. checks B. check C. be checked D. do I 6. My teachers always object ________ foods and drinks into the classroom. A. us to bring B. us bringing C. us bringing D. to our bring 7. One's fingerprints are ________ other person. 

A. different from B. different from any 

C. different from that of any D. different from those of any 8. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000 ________ gave them a standing ovation. 

A. bystanders B. spectators C. viewers D. audiences 9. The person ________ for the team will be contacted by phone. 

A. that choosing B. was chosen C. chosen D. to choose 10. The lecture was very boring; ________, Tom feel asleep 

A. consequently B. nevertheless C. however D. moreover B. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, but some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (✓). If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (1.0 point) 


My mother was very interested for in my hair. She would watch it growing very carefully until it had got to a length which she thought was scandalous. Then she would start hinting so that it was time to must get it cut. In those days (I was a teenager then) I was very fond of my many hair. You might say I was very attached to it and I hated to be parted from it. The longer it grew, the better I felt. My hair was thick and curly and I was afraid I would look ridiculous without it. When I was a little, women in the local corner shop used to admire it and wish they had hair like mine one; instead they had to go and have had their hair curled at the hairdresser's. I was therefore proud of my mop of black, curly hair. When I ignored about my mother's hints, she would keep on complaining about my hairstyle again. 

C. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (0.5 point)


Apart from television, the cinema is the most popular form of (0) entertainment (ENTERTAIN) for most people because it is still relatively (1) _______ (EXPENSE) Hollywood is, of course, the capital of the international cinema industry. Hollywood movies make up (2) _______ (ROUGH) 75% of all the films we watch at our local cinemas. Although we may find it difficult to remember the names of Italian and French film stars. Hollywood stars, such as Sylvester Stallone and Meryl Streep are (3) _______ (HOUSE) all the names all around the world. Moreover, only Hollywood seems to make certain kinds of films successfully. 

Musicals are one example but we can also include westerns, although for a time "spaghetti westerns" (made in Italy) were quite fashionable with cinema (4)_________.(GO) But cowboys and Indians are GO really a Hollywood speciality and they are still going strong after all these years. Such films, however, have not (5)_______ (REMAINDER) untouched by time and changes in attitudes. The cowboys are no longer always the goodies as they were in the 1940s. 

D. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (0.5 point) 

1. My mother would love to take ____ a musical instrument, but she doesn’t have spare time. 

2. ____ behalf of the department I would like to thank you all. 

3. The information you've got is _______ the record so be careful if you intend to use it for publication. 

4. With that costume, you will really stand ______ in a crowd. 

5. Please don't let one failure get you _______. Keep trying! 

III. READING (2.0 points) 

A. Choose the word which best completes each blank in the following text. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (0.5 point) 


At NatWest we know how hard it is to get your business up and running. Understanding your difficulties - and then helping you through them - has made us the number one bank for small businesses for each of the last 10 years, with more people turning to us for (1)_______ than any other bank. 

Our Start-Up service gives you the support you need to set up on your own. There are over 4,000 small business advisors (at least one in every high street branch) who provide help, information and a wide range of services (2)_______ designed to help things go that bit more smoothly. 

Since last year, we've offered 12 months' free banking (3)_______ you go overdrawn or stay in (4)_______. We have also introduced another special scheme to help you keep your costs down for even longer. Provide us with a certificate from a NatWest recognized start-up training (5)_______ that you have completed and there will be no account charges for the first 18 months. 

1. A. employment B. performance C. improvement D. guidance 2. A. specifically B. relatively C. roughly D. approximately 3. A. whatever B. whether C. because D. although 4. A. account B. income C. credit D. cash 5. A. lesson B. course C. subject D. chapter

B. Read the text and decide if the information given below agrees with the opinions expressed in it. Write (T) true, (F) false or (NG) not given on the answer sheet. (0.5 point) 


A. Do you ever get bored with the same old sports? If you’re tired of tennis, fed up with football or bored with basketball, don’t worry. There are plenty of new and unusual sports out there for you to try. Many of these are a mix of existing sports, sometimes with a local element added. Bossable, for example, is a mix of football and volleyball, played on an inflatable pitch with a trampoline in the middle. To make it more exciting, it also has elements of Brazilian martial arts! 

B. If you are very good at horse riding, you could try the national sport of Afghanistan, buzkashi. Many versions have been played in the Central Asian region for hundreds of years. The game involves players on horseback trying to get hold of a dead goat. The 

Afghan Buzkashi Federation wants the game to spread throughout the world and has finally written down the rules because they hope to get Olympic status for the sport. C. A sport that is more likely to become famous is kabaddi. It is popular in India and other parts of South Asia. It is similar in some ways to the game called 'tag' or 'it' which schoolchildren play. One person is 'it' and has to catch the others. In kabaddi, a 'raider' from one team tries to tag a player from the other team and then return to their own half of the field without getting caught. In some versions of the game, the raider must chant the word 'kabaddi' as he returns to his place. Kabaddi is good fun, good exercise and doesn't need any equipment. It is played at the Asian Games. 

D. There is an unusual sport which describes itself as a 'classic mix of brains and brawn'. The game, called 'chess boxing', involves a round of chess and then a round of boxing, then another of chess, and so on. There is one minute between rounds. The first chess boxing world championship took place in 2003 in Amsterdam and was won by a Dutchman, Lepe Rubingh. Since then, it has become more popular, particularly in Germany, the UK, India and Russia. It is a difficult sport, as players need to be very good at two very different activities and be able to switch quickly between the two. 

1. People play bossaball on a soft surface. ____________ 2. Buzkashi is an Olympic sport. ____________ 3. Kabaddi is often played in schools. ____________ 4. Lepe Rubingh invented chess boxing. ____________ 5. Lepe Rubingh is from Germany. ____________ C. Read the text, choose the best answer, and write it on the answer sheet. (1.0 point) 


Once there were millions of elephants roaming our continents. Unfortunately, their numbers have been reduced so much that they are now in danger of extinction. The two species of elephants left on earth today are the African and the Asian elephants. The African elephant is threatened and the Asian elephant is in serious danger. 

Although some progress has been made over the past few years to protect the elephant, a lot more needs to be done. A large number of male Asian elephants are being killed for their ivory tusks, but the biggest threat to the survival of the elephant is the loss of their habitat. 

One fifth of the earth's human population live in Asia and their activities are squeezing elephants out. Today, there are probably fewer than 35,000 elephants living in the wild in Asia. That may sound like a big number but in fact the reality is that their future is not

guaranteed. One of the reasons is that they are split into small, vulnerable groups, another is that, as there are not enough males, reproduction rates are falling. In fact, Asian elephants are in so much danger that some experts estimate that they could disappear in fewer than twenty years. 

So what can be done to reverse this trend? Protecting the elephant will take a lot of work and determination from a lot of different sources and, fortunately, certain players have taken steps in this direction. In May 1989, due to pressure from conservationists and animal protectionists, the United States, Canada, Australia, the European Community and a few other countries banned the commercial import of ivory. From 1990 onwards ivory, body parts and live elephants (excluding zoo animals) cannot be imported or exported from or to these countries. 

In another attempt to save the elephant, protectionists have started breeding elephants in captivity. Since 1990 for example, Ringling Bros. Circus has bred 16 elephants and a total of 42 elephants have been bred in captivity in North America. Circus elephants live longer than elephants in the wild; in captivity, they can live up to 60 or 70 years while in the wild a female elephant lives to 50 years and a male elephant only to 30 years. 

It is hoped that if more people see elephants in zoos and circuses, they will be more likely to protect them. 

1. There are __________ today. 

A. lots of elephants alive B. millions of elephants alive 

C. fewer elephants around D. more than two species of elephants on earth 2. The biggest threat to elephants is __________. 

A. the loss of their tusks 

B. the destruction of their natural environment 

C. the loss of their ivory 

D. that male elephants are killing others 

3. 35,000 elephants is not a lot because __________. 

A. they live in the wild B. they are not all found together C. hard to hurt physically D. they are very vulnerable animals 4. The word vulnerable in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________. A. physically strong B. weak and easily hurt physically C. hard to hurt physically D. physically powerful 

5. Reproduction is __________ of male elephants. 

A. declining because of a lack B. difficult in big numbers 

C. difficult in vulnerable group D. guaranteed by the abundance 6. There __________ elephants in twenty years. 

A. may be fewer B. may be more danger to 

C. may no longer be any Asian D. may be more Asian 

7. According to the text, only __________ can be exported or imported. A. elephant tusks B. wild elephants 

C. dead elephants D. zoo elephants 

8. Since 1990 __________ in North America. 

A. elephant life expectancy has increased 

B. a number of elephants have been born 

C. male elephants have lived longer than females 

D. elephants have not lived in captivity 

9. The word they in paragraph 5 refers to __________. 

A. protectionists B. captivities

C. wild elephants D. circus elephants 

10. By breeding elephants in North America protectionists hope __________. A. that people will see more of them. 

B. awareness of the elephant’s situation will improve. 

C. there will be more zoos and circuses. 

D. elephants will live longer. 

IV. WRITING (3.0 points) 

A. Write the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (0.5 point) 

1. She said to him " You have done really well to pass your driving test so quickly". She congratulated________________________________________________. 2. Without your generous contribution, we couldn't have finished the project effectively. If______________________________________________________________. 3. It was wrong of you to scare your younger sister like that. 

You shouldn't ____________________________________________________. 4. Although Judy was disabled, she took part in many class activities. However________________________________________________________. 5. I only realized how dangerous the situation had been when I got home. Only when_______________________________________________________. B. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence the word given. Do not change the word given. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS each sentence. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (0.5 point) 1. Claire was not allowed to stay out late when she lived at home with her parents. LET 

Claire's parents _______________________ out late when she lived at home. 2. Today's meeting is postponed and it will be held next week. 


Today's meeting has _______________________ until next week. 

3. This is the most delicious meal I have ever eaten. 


I have _______________________ meal like this before. 

4. The two boys are identical twins and they look exactly the same. 


I _______________________ between the two boys. 

5. Simona last wrote to me seven months ago. 


I _______________________ Simona for seven months. 

C. Write an essay on the following topic: (2.0 points) 

Many people say that a lot of students lack life skills after graduating from secondary schools. Do you agree or disagree with this opinion? 

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. You should write at least 250 words.