15 Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9 cấp tỉnh có đáp án và file nghe

TỔNG HỢP ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 9 CẤP TỈNH MÔN TIẾNG ANH có đáp án và file nghe từ các sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo trên cả nước.

Tài liệu diệu kỳ cập nhật đến thầy cô và các bạn học sinh Tuyển tập 15 Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9 cấp tỉnh có đáp án và file nghe (word và pdf), bộ đề thi được tổng hợp từ các Sở GD&ĐT tỉnh/thành phố trên cả nước. Thí sinh có thể tải xuống để ôn tập và tham khảo cấu trúc đề thi để đạt kết quả tốt nhất trong Kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh sắp tới.

Cấu trúc Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh 9 tỉnh/TP chính thức thường có 4 phần chính:

- Part 1. (3 pts) Listening (Multiple Choice; Sentence Completion - Summary Completion; IELTS Form Completion)

- Part 2. (6 pts) Phonetics – Vocabulary and Grammar (Pronunciation; Stress; Idioms; Word formation; Synonyms; Antonyms; Trios of gapped sentences; Error Identification…)

- Part 3. (5 pts) Reading (Guided cloze, Open cloze, Reading comprehension, Matching heading, Sentence Completion - Summary Completion…)

- Part 4.  (6 pts) Writing (Sentence transformations, Key word transformation, Essay writing (about 200 words).)

Dưới đây là các Đề thi chính thức có đầy đủ đáp án và file nghe từ các sở GD&ĐT Phú Yên, Hà Tĩnh, Nghệ An, Phú Thọ, Nam Định, Ninh Bình, Thái Nguyên, Thanh Hóa, Gia Lai.

+99 Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9 cấp tỉnh, thành phố mới nhất đến năm học 2023-2024 có đáp án và file nghe (TẢI XUỐNG TẤT CẢ)

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Trích dẫn nội dung tài liệu "[tailieudieuky.com] ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS TỈNH NINH BÌNH NĂM HỌC 2016-2017 Môn TIẾNG ANH CÓ ĐÁP ÁN":

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS 

NĂM HỌC 2016-2017 

Môn: TIẾNG ANH  

Ngày thi: 21/02/ 2017 

Thời gian làm bài:150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) 

Đề thi gồm 04 phần trong 08 trang 

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH NINH BÌNH 

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC



Điểm bài thi 

Họ và tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

Số phách  

(Do Chủ tịch Hội đồng  chấm thi ghi)

Bằng số: ................../18,00 Bằng chữ: ..........................

Giám khảo 1: ............................................... Giám khảo 2: ...............................................






(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này) 

PART A: LISTENING (3.0 points) 

Hướng dẫn thí sinh:  

- Phần thi nghe gồm 3 bài. Thí sinh được nghe 2 lần liên tiếp. Nghe lần lượt 2 lần bài I, sau đó  2 lần bài II cuối cùng là 2 lần bài III, giữa mỗi lần nghe có 15 giây để chuyển sang phần tiếp. - Thí sinh đọc kĩ yêu cầu của từng bài trước khi nghe. 

 - Hướng dẫn chi tiết bằng Tiếng Anh đã có trong đĩa nghe, bắt đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín  hiệu nhạc. 

Part I. Listen to a dialogue and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). Write  your answer in the numbered box. (1 point) 

1. Andrea is going home by plane. 

2. Paul is excited about going home. 

3. Paul has 3 brothers and they live together. 

4. In Andrea’s family, there are 6 children. 

5. Paul’s mother often cooks big meals when her children get home.  

* Your answers: 

1. 

2. 

3. 

4. 

5. 




Part II. Listen to the tape and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer  in the numbered box. (1.0 point) 

When it appeared on Newsstands 73 years ago, the first edition Action Comics costs ten  cents. The (6) ……….design showed a well-built man in blue tights and a red cape, smashing in a car against a rock.(7)…………was introduced to readers as “the champion of the oppressed”, who  could run faster than an express train. Only a hundred copies of that first issue survive and of comic  buffs, this one was in breathtakingly good (8) ………... 

In an online auction, it fetched a little over $2 million a world record for a comic. The  buyer (9)………………… anonymous. The seller is rumoured to have been the actor Nicolas Cage.  Connoisseurs of the comic world say this type of investment has become popular during troubled  economic times because rare (10)………… hold their value more reliably than properties or shares.  

* Your answers: 

6. 

7. 

8. 

9. 

10. 




Part III. Listen to the tape and choose the correct answer. Write your answer in the  numbered box. ( 1 point) 

11. Charles Richard is from........................... 

A. 7 news B. 7 new C. Channel 7 news D. Disney channel. 

12. What is the first interviewee’s name? 

A. Alice B. Johnny C. Ann D. Elizabeth 

13. Charles is interviewing people on how they celebrate.................... 

A. Christmas B. Birthday C. New Year D. Easter 

14. How old is Johnny? 

A 5 B. 25 C. 10 D. 15 

15. How many interviewees are there? 

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 

* Your answers: 

11. 

12. 

13. 

14. 

15. 




PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points) 

I. Choose the best word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1.0 point) 

16. He is very good at ……………………..people singing with his guitar. 

 A. making B. getting C. accompanying D. having 17. It was only .............he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the  same school. 

 A. then B. until C. as soon as D. when 18. The conference had to be put……………until a late date. 

 A. on B. away C. off D.up 19. Keep silent! You………………..noise in class! 

 A. are always made B. are always making C. have always made D. always make 20. ………………., the lion is a member of the cat family. 

 A. Like the tiger B. Alike the tiger C. Liking the tiger D. It is like the tiger 21. I was under………..that you two had already met. 

 A. the idea B. pressure C. notice D. the impression 22. We…….. a chance on being able to get tickets on the day of the match, but they were sold out.  A. took B. did C. got D. made 23. Mr. Smith comes across to buy a/an ………… car that costs 2 billion dollars.  A. wonderful Victorian orange B. orange wonderful Victorian   C. wonderful orange Victorian D. Victorian orange wonderful 24. John meets Ann , looking at her new pink dress, he says: “ What a beautiful dress!”. How does  Ann reply? 

 A. Oh. It’s my pleasure. B. Thanks! That’s a nice compliment!  C. Ok, That’s great! D. Good idea, thanks. 

25. All that rubbish should be eliminated at once. In this sentence, the word “eliminated” has the same meaning with …………………. 

 A. got out of B. got off C. got rid of D. got over 

* Your answers:

16. 

17. 

18. 

19. 

20. 

21. 

22. 

23. 

24. 

25. 




II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (1.0 point) 

26. Miss White (finish) …………….her course by the time we return next month. 27. Your coat is dirty. You must have it (clean) ………………….. 

28. Science fiction stories (write) ................ by my sister for at least twenty years. 29. Two miles (be) …………………enough for her to go jogging every morning. 30. I didn’t do the test well. I (not/ prepare) …………….. it very carefully at home. 31. I expect you were pleased ……….(get) home after such a terrible holiday. 32. Peter regrets (not/ study) ……………..Spanish when he had the chance. 33. It is recommended that all students (revise) ………thoroughly before taking exams. 34. There are five old trees (fall)………… down due to the last storm yesterday. 35. Had he been early, he (not/miss)………the last train.  

* Your answers:  

26. 

31. 

27. 

32. 

28. 

33. 

29. 

34. 

30. 

35. 




III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (1.0 point) 

36. Tom spoke.........................because he was so excited. (BREATHE) 37. He is not only lazy but also …………….. to apply for that position. (QUALIFICATION) 38. A holiday in America can be ………cheap. (SURPRISE) 39. The factory has been fully....................... (COMPUTER) 40. You should listen …………..to what the teacher is teaching in class. (ATTENTION) 41. It is certain that a large number of endangered animals disappear (LOSE) 

if present rates of forest …….continue.  

42, 43. Nowadays, the young can take part in ………..clubs (VOLUNTEER) to help the disabled………..  

44. Among many ……………………in Vietnam, I like enjoying Tet most. (CELEBRATE) 45. It was……………. impractical to think that we could finish the work (HOPE) in two months.  

* Your answers:

36. 

41. 

37. 

42. 

38. 

43. 

39. 

44. 

40. 

45. 




IV. Find in each of the sentences a mistake and then correct it. (1.0 point) 

46. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to cut down the gas supply to the flat. A B C D 47. If she had bought that house, she would have run out of money now.  

 A B C D 

48. In front of the museum is there a lot of flowers and some tall trees. 

 A B C D 

49. A large number of Americans watches and participates in sport activities, which is a deeply in   A B C 

grained part of American life. 

 D 

50. You want to go camping, Son?- There will be no objection in our part. 

 A B C D 

* Your answers: 



Mistake 

Correction

46





47





48





49





50








V. Fill in the gaps, using suitable preposition. (1.0 point) 

51. Parents are naturally anxious………………………………their children’s safety. 52. It’s very difficult……………………………….find work at the moment. 53. You can pay $200 …………………….and the rest in 12 monthly in installment. 54. Mary found it hard to concentrate ………………….. her work because of the noise. 55. Let these clothes be washed …………………. you have finished your homework. 56. The thieves went ……………… the old man with a knife. 

57. It is better to try to work …………………… rather than against the boss. 58. In a consumer taste test, Coca-Cola went ……………….. against Pepsi. 59, 60. Detectives are hunting …………. thieves who broke …………….. a warehouse yesterday. 

* Your answers: 

51. 

56. 

52. 

57. 

53. 

58. 

54. 

59. 

55. 

60. 




PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (5.0 points) 

I. Read the passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your  answer in the numbered box. (2.0 points) 

Thomas Alva Edison was born in Milan, Ohio, On February 11th, 1847. His family  (61)……… to Port Huron, Michigan, when he was seven years old. Surprisingly, he (62)………… school for only two months. His mother, a former teacher, taught him a few things, but Thomas was  mostly (63)……………. His natural curiosity (64)…………… him to start experimenting at young 

age. Thomas Edison lit up the world with his (65)…….............of the electric light.  (66)………………….the electric light seems to be the most useful, it was not his only invention.  He also invented the record player, the motion picture camera, and over 1,200 other inventions. About every two weeks, he (67)…………something new. He worked 16 out of (68)……………24  hours. Sometimes he worked so intensely that his wife had to remind (69)……….. to sleep and eat.  Thomas Edison died at the age of 84 on October 18th, 1931, at his estate in West Orange, New  Jersey. He left numerous inventions that (70)………. …the quality of life all over the world. 

* Your answers: 

61. 

66. 

62. 

67. 

63. 

68. 

64. 

69. 

65. 

70. 




II. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. (1.0 points)  Earth is the only place we know on the universe that can support human life (71) ...............human  activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (72) …………..on  consuming two-thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so (73)  ……….. to stay alive. We are rapidly destroying the (74)………..resource we have by which all  people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (75) ……….built on or washed into the  sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (76)  ………….. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences.  As a result, the planet’s ability to support people is being (77) …………….at the time when rising  human numbers and consumption are (78) …………….. increasingly heavy demands on it. The  Earth’s natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,  warmth, shelter and minerals to (79) ………….. us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are  sensible in how we use the resources they will (80) ………… indefinitely. But if we use them  wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. 

71. A. Although B. Still C. Yet D. Despite 72. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows 73. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely 74. A. alone B. individual C. lone D. only 

75. A. sooner B. neither C. either D. rather 76. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely 77. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut 78. A. doing B. having C. taking D. making 79. A. hold B. maintain C. stay D. keep 80. A. last B. stand C. go D. remain * Your answers: 

71. 

72. 

73. 

74. 

75.

76. 

77. 

78. 

79. 

80.




III. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. (2.0  points) 

History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But  

sound films, or talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest  public performances in 1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were  produced by a single pianist, a small band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy  sound-effect machines. Research into sound that was reproduced at exactly the same time as the  

5

pictures – called “synchronized sound” – began soon after the very first films were shown. With  synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing and speak. As early as 1896, the  newly invented gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and dialogue, was used as a  sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and the pictures could become  unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of projector  

10 

changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence. In the “sound-on-film” system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which  could be read by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image,  guaranteeing synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this ways as early as 1922. This  system eventually brought us “talking pictures, they still flourished in the following years. 

15

81. The passage is mainly about the ……………….. 

 A. history of silent movies B. disadvantages of synchronized sound  C. development of sound with movies D. research into sound reproduction 82. The word “screenings” in the line 2 is closest in meaning to ………………...  A. projections B. revelations 

 C. demonstrations D. diversions 

83. Which of the following is not mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies?   A. a jazz singer B. a single pianist 

 C. a small band D. a gramophone 

84. It can be referred that…………………..  

 A. most movie theaters had a pianist B. sound-effects machines were not common  because they were expensive 


 C. orchestras couldn’t synchronize sound with  the pictures 

D. gramophones were developed about the same  time as moving pictures 


85. According to the passage, at that time, gramophones were ineffective because they………….  A. got out of synchronization with the picture B. were too large for most movie theaters. 


 C. were newly invented and still had  imperfections 

86. When were short feature films produced? 

D. changed speeds when the needle jumped 


 A. in 1896 B. in 1927 

 C. after 1922 D. as early as 1922 

87. The word “These” in line 3 refers to ………………. 

 A. sound B. performances 

 C. sound effects D. films 

88. According to the passage, sound-on-film guaranteed synchronization because the recording  was ………………………. 

 A. made during the film of the picture B. recorded and read by an optical sensor 


 C. read by an optical sensor and inserted  beside the image on the film 

D. marked on the gramophone 


89. Which of the following statement could be best described the title of the next paragraph? 


 A. The continuous years of talking picture  films’ development. 

 C. Another story of another book about  another kind of film 

B. The limitations of this kind of film. D. How sound - on - films will be reproduced. 


90. In which lines does the author mention the drawback of gramophone invention?  A. Lines 1-2 B. Lines 4-5 

 C. Lines 9-10 D. Lines 12-13 

* Your answers: 

81. 

82. 

83. 

84. 

85.

86. 

87. 

88. 

89. 

90.




PART D: WRITING (5.0 points) 

I. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has the same meaning as the sentence  printed before it. (2. 0 points) 

91. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car. 

The man ……………………………………………………………………………............................ 92. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk. 

Having ……………………………………………………………………………………………... 93. Philip’s inability to make decisions dates from his accident. 

Ever........................................................................................................................................................ 94. Don’t run away with the idea that this work is easy. 

Don’t draw…………………………………………………………………………………………… 95. They do not clean the windows so the room looks rather dark.  

Were they…………………………………………………………………………………………….. 96. I would prefer you to wear something more formal to work. 

I‘d rather …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 97. Lan did not reach home until midnight. 

It was…………………………………………………………………………………………………. 98. We were very much surprised to learn that Brian had become a monk. 

Much to …..……...…………………………………………………………………………………… 99. If I take the job, I’ll have to move to London. 

As……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 100. I’m sure you were proud of your son’s success. 

You must……………………………………………………………………………………………… 

II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that its meaning stays the same, using the words  given (DO NOT change the form of the words given). (1.0 point) 

101. The salesman said she was sorry she was late for the meeting. APOLOGIZED 

=>……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 102. You can take any of the routes, it will still take you about three hours to get there.   WHICHEVER =>……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 103. Although I tried hard, I could not pass my driving test. POSSIBLE 

=>……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 104. It is their duty to carry the luggage to the cabins. RESPONSIBLE  =>…………………………………………………………………………………………………… 105. You have to stay calm down whatever situation it is. UNDER 

=>…………………………………………………………………………………………………….. III. Paragraph writing. (2.0 points). 

To reduce traffic jam, some public transports such as fast buses, sky trains and  underground rail way systems are used in some big cities such as Ha Noi and Ho Chi Minh city. Write a paragraph (from 100 to 120 words) to state this statement. 

…………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… 

…………………………………………………………………………………… …….…………………………………………………………………………….. 

…………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… 

_______THE END_______