Xin giới thiệu đến quý vị và các bạn bộ tài liệu "Tuyển tập bộ đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9 cấp quận, huyện, cấp thành phố mới nhất cập nhật từ 2020, 2021, 2022 đến 2023 có file nghe (audio) và đáp án đầy đủ (hướng dẫn chấm chính thức) file Word và PDF". Đây là một bộ sưu tập đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 9, được thiết kế đặc biệt cho học sinh khá và giỏi. Bộ đề thi bao gồm đề thi từ các quận, huyện, thành phố trực thuộc tỉnh, cũng như các quận thuộc các TP lớn như Hà Nội, TP HCM, Nghệ An... Nó cung cấp đáp án và hướng dẫn chi tiết đầy đủ để giúp bạn học sinh nắm vững kiến thức và chuẩn bị cho Kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp quận huyện.
Một số đề thi trong tuyển tập bao gồm: ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 VÒNG 3 MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 PHÒNG GD&ĐT NAM ĐÀN, NGHỆ AN có đáp án, ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS CẤP HUYỆN YÊN LẬP Môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm học 2021-2022 có đáp án và audio (file nghe), ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT KSCL CÂU LẠC BỘ HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH 9 PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO QUẬN HOÀN KIẾM NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 có đáp án, Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh 9 quận 6, TP Hồ Chí Minh năm học 2019-2020...
Đề thi được thiết kế với các câu hỏi khó và nâng cao, kèm theo file nghe để bạn có cơ hội rèn luyện kỹ năng nghe. Đừng bỏ lỡ cơ hội tải xuống bộ đề thi này để ôn luyện và bồi dưỡng hiệu quả. Hãy chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi của mình bằng cách thực hành với những câu hỏi thực tế và có đáp án chi tiết.
Đề thi KSCL, chọn HSG Tiếng Anh 9 thường được chia làm 5 phần chính cụ thể là:
- Phần I: Listening (Nghe), gồm các dạng bài nghe tương tự như chứng chỉ IELTS , FCE, điền từ, trắc nghiệm (MCQ) và True/False Question...
- Phần II: Phonetics (Ngữ Âm) gồm Trọng Âm (Stress) và Phát âm (Pronunciation).
- Phần III: Lexico and Grammar được chia thành nhiều bài thi nhỏ như: Grammar and Vocabulary; Word formation (từ loại); Error Identification (Tìm lỗi sai); Gapped Text; Give the correct tense or form of the verb (Thì của động từ)...
- Phần IV: Reading gồm Reading comprehension (Đọc hiểu), Gap filling (Bài đọc đục lỗ)/Open cloze and Guided cloze...
- Phần V: Writing gồm Sentence transformations, Key-word transformations (Viết lại câu- Biến đổi câu); Paragraph/Essay Writing (yêu cầu thí sinh viết một bài luận ngắn theo chủ đề hoặc viết thư)
- Ngoài ra, ở một số khu vực, Phòng GD&ĐT tổ chức thêm phần thi nói (Speaking) bằng hình thức độc thoại và ghi âm vào máy tính. Thi sinh bốc thăm ngẫu nhiên chủ đề và trình bày trong 2 phút.
Trích dẫn nội dung một số đề thi chọn HSG lớp 9 Tiếng Anh cấp quận/huyện có file nghe và đáp án chính thức cực hay:
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS CÁP THÀNH PHỐ
THÀNH PHỐ THANH HÓA
(Đề thi gồm 06 trang)
NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Ngày thi: 10/03/2023
SECTION A: LISTENING (15 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
* Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
* Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
* Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Question I. Listen to the dialogue and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word or number (5 points)
THE HOUSE FOR RENT
Location:
(1)
Number of bedrooms:
(2)
Number of bathrooms:
(3)
It's five (4)
from the airport.
Vergion Islands.
The house is not (5)
Question II. Listen and decide whether each of the following statements is True or False Write "True", "False" on your answer sheet. (5 points)
Statements
6. On Friday evening, she often goes out.
7. She likes cooking.
8. On Saturday morning, she goes swimming.
9. She gets up early on Sunday morning.
10. Her sister has 2 children and she lives in the country.
2
T
F
Question III. Listen to the dialogue and choose the best answer (5 points)
11. When did Mary Kingsley explore Africa?
A. Between 1893 1895 B. In 1894 12. What did she study in West Africa?
A. British Museums.
C. African customs, laws, and religion. 13. What did she write about in her books?
A. Her impression on Africa.
C. Her companions.
14. What was the influence of her books?
A. They changed African history.
C. In 1895 D. Between 1883 - 1893
B. Africa museums. D. African history.
B. Her travels.
D. Her background.
B. They changed European's and African's attitudes. C. They helped African know more about European. D. They helped European know more about African.
15. How old was she when she died? A. 58
B. 48
C. 38
D. 28
SECTION B. PHONETICS (5 points)
Question I. Find only one word whose underlined part has different pronunciation from that of the other words (3points)
16. A. coughs
17. A. government
18. A. decided
B. slices
B. anchor
B. arrived
C. months
C. jungle
C. invited
D. hopes
D. thank
D. dogged
D. counselor D. produce
Question II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others (2points)
19. A. description
20. A. protect
B. amendment
B. project
C. inspector C. purchase
SECTION C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30points)
Question I. Choose the best word or phrases (A, B, C or D) to complete these sentences. (10 points)
21. At first I found
A. it difficult - drive
C. it difficult - driving
B. a few
to get used to
on the other side of the road.
B. difficult - drive D. difficult- driving hope for him to recover. C. few
D. little
D. does she
22. He is seriously ill. There is
A. a little 23. I don't suppose she can pass her driving test,
B. can't she
A. do I 24. He gave me a (an)
A. attractive cotton pink C. cotton attractive pink 25. This heat has made me
?
C. can she dress on my last birthday.
B. pink cotton attractive D. attractive pink cotton
an itchy red rash.
C. put on
C. deduced
B. tone up 26. My grandfather was a lovely person who
A. take up
A. derived
B. gathered
27. Hoa: "Would you mind my smoking?"
Mai: "
A. OK
C. No. Please go ahead.
28. It looked dark and heavy
B. as if
D. come out in
pleasure from helping others.
D. collected
B. Sorry, I can't
D. I'd rather you
didn't
it was going to rain.
C. whereas
D. unless
C. a
D. (no article)
A. although
29. I met
A. the
30.
one-eyed man at the gate.
B. an
at his lessons, he couldn't catch up with his classmates.
A. Hardly as he worked
C. Hard as he does
B. Hard as he worked D. Hard as he was
Question II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following
sentences (8points)
31. Our children enjoy (take)
32. They are going to have their house (paint)
33. It is vital that everyone (be)
to the zoo every weekend.
for Christmas.
aware of the protection of the environment.
well for it.
34. He got the highest mark in the test yesterday. He (prepare) 35. Tony's family (be)
teachers for 3 generations
2
36. Anyone (ring)
while I'm away, please take a message."
37. The boy's eyes were red because he (cry)
38. The old man is said (leave) _______ all his money to a nursing home when he died. Question III. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet (7 points)
39. The gas from the chemical factory was........ harmful.
40. Pablo Picasso was a very.......artist.
41. It's.......of motorists to drink and drive.
(EXTREME) (CREATE) (RESPONSIBILITY)
42. The government is spending a lot of money in the attempt to fight against........ (LITERATE)
43. Make sure that you......the electricity before you start mending this light switch. (CONNECT)
44. Students often tend to be a bit.......but they usually become less radical with age.
(ESTABLISH) (MEASURE)
45. They took............of noise levels inside the building. Question IV: The passage below contains 5 mistakes (from questions 46 to 50). Find out the mistakes and write the correct answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
The world's oceans are so vast that they can cope with the present levels of pollution. However, little is known about the long-term effects of such slow poisoning. The most serious problem of modern time is that man is destroyed the earth's natural resources and transforming huge areas into waste land. As the result, it is becoming extremely difficult to grow enough to feed the world's rapid increasing population. A way of protecting all wildlife on the earth must also be found as many species are on danger of disappearing completely from the face of the earth. The smoke in the atmosphere, for example, are increasing so much that the amount of sunlight has been reduced in many cities. Man's whole environment is being changed in a serious way.
SECTION D. READING (30 points)
Line 1
Line 2
Line 3
Line 4
Line 5
Line 6
Line 7
Line 8
Line 9
Line 10
Line 11
Question I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences by circling A, B, C or D. (10points)
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The schools teach a (51)________many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know. But very few students bother (52)________ it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate, with people and to (53) your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will (54)
understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (55) _______ itself. You must have something to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends (56) your ability to make other people understand your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
3
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (57)______ teach. The foundations for skill in expression have to be (58)_________ early: an interest in and an ear (59). language; experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you do not lay these foundations (60) your school years,
you may never have an opportunity again.
51. A. large 52. A. learning
B. great B. to learn
C. far
D. lots
C. with learning
D. learn
53. A. interpret
B. give out
C. transfer
D. present
54. A. both
B. not
C. as well
D. either
55. A. on
B. for
C. by
D. in
56. A. on most
B. most on
C. much on
D. on much
57. A. quite
B. hardly
C. truly
D. really
58. A. lied
B. laid
C. lain
D. lay
59. A. by
B. in
C. for
D. of
60. A. during
B. of
C. for
D. when
Question II. Read the following passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.
(10 points)
My grandmother told me that our village (61)
very poor many years ago. The
and mud.
villagers had to work hard in the fields all days but they could not earn enough for their living. Their lives were very simple. Many people had to live in houses made of (62)
Nowadays my village has changed a lot. People live in big brick houses. In the evening, they
can listen to the (63)
on the radio or watch TV for entertainment. All people in my
village try their best to make their living better. They raise and (64) the roads so the
after it rains. They widen the roads so cars and lorries
roads will not be muddy and (65)
can get to the village easily. They build a medical center so people's health can be looked (66)
at any time. They build a new school so their children have better learning (67)
They build a bridge (68) build a football ground so their children can play sports. And they grow cash crops so people can export the crops and have more money. I would like to become an agricultural engineer in the future so I can (69) ____ new technology to our farming and do more for the village (70)
our parents did.
the river so villagers have a shorter way to town. They also
Question III. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. (10points)
Lake Baikal, the world's largest lake, is located in southern Siberia, in Russia. It measures 395 miles long by 50 miles wide and it has 1,245 miles of coastline. The lake's rocky basin consists of three depressions, which hold a total volume of 14,656 cubic miles of water, 20 percent of the freshwater in the world. The lake is also very deep, with its deepest point at over 1 mile and
4
an average depth of 2,066 feet. Furthermore, scientists have determined that Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world. From sediment obtained by drilling deep down below the lake, researchers estimate it to be at least 25 million years old.
To scientists, Lake Baikal is of particular interest because of its unique and isolated ecosystem. More than 1,000 species of plants and animals found at Lake Baikal exist nowhere else on earth and some can be dated to prehistoric times. Among its unique fauna is the Baikal freshwater seal. This creature, which local people call nerpa, is the only mammal which inhabits the lake. Researchers speculate that these seals, which have been breeding at Lake Baikal for 22 million years, are the descendents of ocean-dwelling seals which migrated inland in search of food, when the lake was still connected to the sea. Another creature that is unique to this Siberian Lake is the omu, a fish, which is caught by local fisherman and is considered a great delicacy.
For centuries, the water in Lake Baikal was so clear that it was possible to see down to depths of 40 to 60 feet. Several factors contributed to keeping the water crystal clear. First, the lake contained certain small zoo plankton and small crustaceans that consumed waterweeds, bacteria, and other material that would otherwise cloud the water. Furthermore, the water in the lake consisted of rainwater and melted snow that flowed down from a mountain range in about 300 streams and through uninhabited forest. Finally, most of the watershed has a rocky surface, so the water flowing into the lake did not accumulate mud or organic matter and had little mineral or chemical content.
71. The word "which" in the first paragraph refers to
A. the rocky basin
C. the total water volume
B. the lake
D. three depressions
72. All of the following is mentioned EXCEPT that
A. Lake Baikal is the world's largest lake C. Lake Baikal is the deepest lake in the world B. Lake Baikal is located in Russia
D. Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world
73. All of the following are true about Lake Baikal EXCEPT that
A. it has a great variety of fish
B. it is near the sea
C. it has the biggest amount of freshwater in the world
D. it is about 25 million years old
74. Scientists are particularly interested in Lake Baikal because
A. its ecosystem is special
B. the animals there are similar to elsewhere
C. it has more species of plants than anywhere else
D. it is isolated
75. Baikal fresh seal is
A. the only habitants of the lake Baikal
B. only found in the lake Baikal
C. has been breeding at the lake for 32 million years
D. a species of plant
76. Omu is mentioned in the passage as
A. a local fisherman
C. descendents of ocean-dwelling seals 77. The water of the lake Baikal is
B. an animal migrating inland from the sea D. an animal unique to the lake
5
A. transparent
B. toxic
78. According to the passage, there are
water in Lake Baikal.
A. 2
B. 1
B. dirty
C. made of crystal
D. used to make crystal factors contributing to the clarity of the
C. 3
79. The word cloud in the final paragraph can be best replaced by A. cold
80. The water in the lake is from all of the following EXCEPT A. snow
B. rainwater
C. clean
C. streams
SECTION E: WRITING (20 points)
D. 4
D. muddy
D. forests
Question I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (5 points)
81. It was the fog that caused the traffic problem.
If it..
82. She furiously threw the book across the room.
→ Such.....
83. By chance I was in that town when the earthquake started.
→ I happened...
84. It's thought that the accident was caused by human error.
→ The accident is
85. They did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second son.
→Only when ...
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 points)
86. I remember that my father took me to town to see that film. (BEING)
→ I remember
87. Please come as early as possible. (BETTER)
→ You should
....
88. The man said that lie hadn't been involved in the robbery. (DENIED)
→ The man
89. I burst into tears when I heard the bad news. (BROKE)
→ I ......
90. If people deliberately start a fire, they should be punished. (WHO)
=> I think anyone
Question III. Paragraph writing. (10 points)
In the modern society, children spend a lot of time playing computer games. Is this a positive or negative trend?
Use specific reasons and any relevant examples to support your view in about 120-150 words.
THE END
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ tên học sinh:
Số báo danh:
6
F
(cm)
(
(
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM HSG MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 8 HSG CẤP THÀNH PHỐ NĂM HỌC 2022 – 2023
SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
I.
1. Tortola
2. three/3
3. two/2
4. miles
5. available
II.
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. False
10. True
III.
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. C
SECTION B. PHONETICS (5 points)
Question I. Find only one word whose underlined part has different pronunciation from that of the other words.
16. B
19. D
17. A
18. B
Question II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others
20. A/ C
SECTION C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30pts)
Question I. Choose the best word or phrases (A, B, C or D) to complete these sentences.
21. C
26. A
22. D
27. D
23 C
28. B
24. D
29. C
25.D
30. B
Question II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the
following sentences.
31. being taken
32. Painted
33. (should) be
34. must have prepared 35. have been has been
36. Should anyone ring
37. had been crying
38. to have left
Question III. Give the correct form of the words. (7 points)
39. extremely
40. creative
41. irresponsible
42. illiteracy
43. disconnect
44. anti-establishment
7
45. measurements/
measurement
Question IV: Error identification (5 pts)
Line
46
4
47
5
48
6
49
8
50
9
SECTION D. READING
MISTAKES
destroyed
the
rapid
on
Are
CORRECTION
destroying
a
rapidly
in
is
Question I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences by circling A, B, C or D.
(10 points)
П
51. B
52. B/A 53. D
57. D
58. B
54. A
59. C
55. B
60. A
56. C
Question II. Read the following passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable
word.
(10 points)
3
61. was
62. straw
63. news
66. after
67. conditions
5
In 10
mend/reconstruct 64. resurface,
repair/ rebuild/
68. over/across 69. apply /brig
bumpy
65. flooded/slipper
70. than
diaty
Question III. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B,
Cor D.(10pts)
6
7
71. D
8
76.D
72. C
77. A
73. B 78.C
74. A
75. B
79.B
80.D
ç
SECTION E: WRITING
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
81. If it hadn't been for the fog, there wouldn't have been traffic problem 82. Such was her fury that she threw the book across the room.
83. I happened to be in that town when the earthquake started
84. The accident is thought to have been caused by human error
85. Only when they had their second son/their second son was born did they decide to move to a bigger house.
Question II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
86. → I remember being taken to town to see that film by my father.
87. You should come the sooner the better.
88→ The
→ The man
. denied having been involved in the robbery.... .....denied that he had been involved in the robbery...
89. I broke down when I heard the bad news
90. I think anyone who starts a fire should be punished.
Loic horately
8
Question III. Paragraph writing (10 points)
In the modern society, children spend a lot of time playing computer games. Is this
a positive or negative trend?
Use specific reasons and any relevant examples to support your view in about 120-150 words. (10 points)
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme: 1. Format (2 pts):
The paragraph must include a topic sentence, supporting ideas and a concluding
sentence.
2. Content (5 pts):
Ideas are presented with coherence and cohesion, style and clarity.
3. Language (3 pts):
A provision of a variety of vocabulary, good use and control of grammatical structure, good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
-
Thí sinh làm cách khác mà đúng vẫn cho điểm tối đa.
- Tổng điểm toàn bài: 100 điểm
- Thang điểm:
Điểm bài thi
20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
5
THE END