Đề thi Tiếng anh vào 10 Nghệ An 2023 có đáp án file word và pdf

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

Question 1: A. construction B. camera   C. company  D. cinema

Question 2: A. such B. much C. push D. fun

Question 3: A. appointed    B. visited  C. decided  D. damaged

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. holiday  B. attention    C. balcony  D. national

Question 5: A. cartoon  B. teacher  C. letter   D. student

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the sentences.

Question 6: Jack _______ the computer and checked his email.

A. took off B. turned on    C. gave up  D. made up

Question 7: Hurricane Andrew swept through southern Florida _______ 1992. 

A. for  B. on   C. at   D. in

Question 8: Helen isn’t good at Maths. She wishes she _______ it well.

A. studies  B. studied  C. is studying  D. has studied

Question 9: Her teacher was _______ at how quickly she came up with the answer.

A. surprise B. surprising   C. surprised    D. surprisingly

Question 10: Your parents have just retired, _______?

A. haven’t they B. have they    C. don’t they   D. do they

Question 11: The manager reminded Jack _______ late for the meeting the next day.

A. to be not    B. not be   C. not to be    D. don’t be

Question 12: Tourists are impressed by the _______ of Ha Long Bay.

A. beauty   B. beautify C. beautiful    D. beautifully

Question 13: Ba is _______ than any other student in his class.

A. much taller  B. much tall    C. the tallest  D. as tall

Question 14: A newspaper which is published every day is called a _______ newspaper.

A. yearly   B. monthly  C. daily    D. weekly

Question 15: The Smiths _______ live in the countryside before they moved to this city.

A. used to  B. is used to   C. uses to  D. was used to

Question 16: The population of that area has _______ from 22,000 to 25,000 over the past 2 years.

A. increased    B. decreased    C. reduced  D. improved

Question 17: We’re going to consolidate at we’ve learnt so far by _______ some exercises today.

A. making   B. doing    C. performing   D. putting

Question 18: A new bridge _______ across the river by these workers last year.

A. built    B. was built    C. builds   D. has built

Question 19: I can’t work effectively at home _______ it is too noisy.

A. in spite of  B. because  C. although D. because of

Question 20: My children enjoy _______ about wild animals and natural mysteries.

A. to read  B. read C. reading  D. to reading

Question 21: He’s really got the bit between his _______ so that he can pass the exam with flying colours.

A. teeth    B. eyes C. ears D. feet

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Many people left the cinema early because the film was boring.

A. fascinating  B. uninteresting    C. exciting D. surprising

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 23: We need to find ways of producing energy without destroying the environment.

A. changing B. protecting   C. creating D. damaging

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Nick and Mary are at their office. 

- Mike: “Thank you for your advice, Mary.”

- Mary: “______?” 

A. Have a good day  B. Same to you

C. Good idea    D. You’re welcome 

Question 25: John is talking with Peter, his classmate. 

- John: “Would you like to go out for dinner with my family?”

- Peter: “______.”

A. I agree with you B. Yes, I’d love to

C. Never mind   D. That’s right

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 26: Jane listens usually to pop music when she has free time.

A. listens usually  B. pop  C. when D. free

Question 27: The number of people working in agriculture falls in the last decade. 

A. number   B. in   C. falls    D. decade

Question 28: I think that the talk about American movies is both informative and entertained

A. think    B. American C. both D. entertained

Question 29: Our new colleague is self-educated, hard-working, energetic, and always tells the truth.

A. new  B. self-educated    C. energetic    D. always tells the truth

Question 30: There are only one task that we need to complete today.

A. are  B. that C. need D. complete

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 31: It is two weeks since she last called me.

A. She has called me for two weeks. B. She did not call me for two weeks ago.

C. She has not called me for two weeks. D. She called me for two weeks.

Question 32: It is inadvisable for us to attempt to do this ourselves.

A. We shouldn’t attempt to do this ourselves.   B. We might attempt to do this ourselves.

C. We must attempt to do this ourselves.    D. We needn’t attempt to do this ourselves.

Question 33: Tom asked his classmate: “Are you joining us for the party this weekend?”

A. Tom asked his classmate if he is joining them for the party that weekend.

B. Tom asked his classmate if was he joining them for the party that weekend.

C. Tom asked his classmate if he was joining them for the party that weekend.

D. Tom asked his classmate if is he joining them for the party that weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 34: The taxi driver is friendly. He took me to the airport yesterday.

A. The taxi driver who took me to the airport yesterday is friendly.

B. The taxi driver which took me to the airport yesterday is friendly.

C. The taxi driver whom took me to the airport yesterday is friendly.

D. The taxi driver is friendly who took me to the airport yesterday.

Question 35: He smokes too much. He can’t get rid of his cough.

A. If he didn’t smoke so much, he could get rid of his cough.

B. If he smokes smoke so much, he can’t get rid of his cough.

C. If he didn’t smoke so much, he can get rid of his cough.

D. If he smoked so much, he could get rid of his cough.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 40.

One electronic device that I find extremely (36) _______ in my daily life is my smartphone. It’s an essential tool (37) _______ allows me to stay connected with friends, family, and colleagues. I use it to make phone calls, send text messages, and check my email on the go. It’s also my primary camera for (38) _______ photos and recording videos. In addition to these basic functions, my smartphone is loaded with a variety of apps that help me (39) _______ everything from navigation to productivity. Whether I need to book a ride, order food, or check the weather, my smartphone is always there to help me get things done quickly and efficiently. I can’t (40) _______ going a day without it!

Question 36:    A. useless  B. usefully C. useful   D. use

Question 37:    A. who  B. which    C. where    D. what

Question 38:    A. showing  B. making   C. taking   D. catching

Question 39:    A. with B. for  C. on   D. of

Question 40:    A. guess    B. think    C. help D. imagine

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 45.

Last weekend, there was a soccer match in the city park. Two local teams, the Ventures and the Airbobs, competed against each other. Many people came to watch the game and cheer for their favorite team. The match started at 3 p.m and came to an end at 4 p.m. The Ventures wore blue jerseys, while the Airbobs wore yellow jerseys. The Ventures played very well and scored two goals, while the Airbobs scored only one goal. The crowd was excited and cheered loudly whenever a goal was scored. 

The weather was perfect for the game. The sun was shining, and there was a gentle breeze. The players ran fast and showed great skill in passing and shooting the ball. The referee did a good job of keeping the game fair and making sure all the rules were followed. At half-time, the teams took a short break to rest and hydrate. The spectators used this time to buy snacks and drinks from the food stalls near the field. Some children played soccer themselves in the nearby playground, imitating their favorite players. 

In the second half of the game, both teams fought hard to score more goals. The Ventures were determined to keep their lead, while the Airbobs were eager to catch up. The players were exhausted, but they didn’t give up. Finally, when the whistle blew, the Ventures won the match with a score of 2-1.

Question 41: Where did the Ventures and the Airbobs compete against each other?

A. in the city stadium  B. in the playground    C. on the beach D. in the city park

Question 42: The match lasted for _______.

A. three hours  B. four hours   C. two hours    D. one hour

Question 43: The word “jerseys” in paragraph 2 mostly means “shirts worn by the people who_______”.

A. cheered for their favorite team  B. played a sports game

C. watched a sports event   D. controlled a sports game

Question 43: What did the spectators do during half-time?

A. They watched the players practice.   B. They bought snacks and drinks.

C. They played soccer in the nearby playground. D. They rested and hydrated.

Question 42: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _______.

A. advantage    B. communication    C. language D. multilingualism

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.

Being fluent in more than one language has numerous advantages that extend beyond communication. Multilingualism offers cognitive, social, and professional benefits, making it a valuable skill in today’s interconnected world. 

One of the cognitive benefits of multilingualism is improved memory and attention. Learning and switching between different languages exercises the brain, enhancing its ability to remember and process information. Multilingual individuals often display better problem-solving skills and increased mental flexibility. In terms of social benefits, being multilingual allows for better cross-cultural understanding and empathy. Language is closely tied to culture, and by speaking multiple languages, individuals gain insights into different cultural perspectives. This promotes tolerance, open-mindedness, and the ability to connect with people from diverse backgrounds. Professionally, being multilingual opens up a world of opportunities. In an increasingly globalized job market, employers value individuals who can communicate effectively with international partners and clients. Multilingual employees are often sought after in industries such as tourism, diplomacy, and international business. Moreover, learning multiple languages can boost academic performance. Research has shown that multilingual students tend to have better problem-solving skills, enhanced creativity, and improved overall academic achievement. 

While learning multiple languages requires dedication and effort, the benefits are well worth it. It not only broadens one’s horizons but also contributes to personal growth and understanding of the world.

Question 46: What can be the title of the passage?

A. The Cognitive Benefits of Multilingualism

B. The Benefits of Multilingualism

C. Multilingualism in the Globalized Job Market

D. How to Become Multilingual

Question 47: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to _______.

A. advantage    B. communication    C. language D. multilingualism

Question 48: What cognitive advantage does multilingualism offer?

A. Increased creativity and artistic skills B. Enhanced memory and attention

C. Improved physical fitness    D. Greater musical abilities

Question 49: It can be inferred from the passage that multilingual individuals are in high demand in the professional fields of _______.

A. education and healthcare B. international business and law

C. technology and diplomacy D. tourism and diplomacy

Question 50: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Multilingualism fosters cross-cultural understanding and empathy.

B. Being multilingual does not bring people a lot of job opportunities.

C. Multilingual individuals often show increased physical flexibility.

D. It needs little effort and dedication to learn multiple languages.

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- Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm

Cán bộ coi thi số 1:    ………………………...    Cán bộ coi thi số 2:    ………………………...

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

NGHỆ AN

ĐÁP ÁN MÃ ĐỀ THI 211

    KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT

NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Câu hỏi Đáp án

1   D

2   C

3   D

4   B

5   A

6   B

7   D

8   B

9   C

10  A

11  C

12  A

13  A

14  C

15  A

16  A

17  B

18  B

19  B

20  C

21  A

22  B

23  B

24  D

25  B

Câu hỏi Đáp án

26  A

27  C

28  D

29  D

30  A

31  C

32  A

33  C

34  A

35  A

36  C

37  B

38  C

39  A

40  D

41  D

42  D

43  C

44  C

45  D

46  B

47  D

48  B

49  D

50  A