Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021

Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, TP Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021 - Trang 1/10

Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021 đã có tại website tailieudieuky.com. Bài thi Tiếng Anh (Chuyên) diễn ra vào ngày 24 tháng 7 năm 2020, gồm 10 trang và các thí sinh có 150 phút làm bài. Đề thi chính thức có 4 phần chính: I. Listening (20 điểm); II. Lexico-Grammar (27 điểm); III. Reading (33 điểm) và Writing (20 điểm). Điểm quy đổi bài thi được tính trên thang điểm 10. Điểm của bài thi là căn cứ quan trọng để các thí sinh xét tuyển vào các lớp chuyên cùng với 3 bài thi chung bắt buộc.

Để cập nhật các thông tin mới nhất về Kỳ thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 THPT tại thành phố Cần Thơ. Thầy cô và các em có thể truy cập trang tin Tuyển sinh để nắm bắt được các thông báo mới nhất từ sở GD&ĐT Thành Phố.

Kỳ tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT năm học 2020-2021, Sở GD&ĐT TP Cần Thơ sẽ được tổ chức vào ngày 5 và 6-6-2020; với 3 bài thi: Toán, Ngữ văn, Ngoại ngữ; ngày 7-6-2020 thi các môn chuyên của Trường THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng. Học sinh được đăng ký tối đa 5 nguyện vọng.

Tải xuống: Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021
Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, TP Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021 - Trang 1/10

Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, TP Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021 - Trang 1/10

Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, TP Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021 - Trang 3/10

Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, TP Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021 - Trang 3/10

Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, TP Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021 - Trang 7/10

Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Lý Tự Trọng, TP Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021 - Trang 7/10

Nội dung đề thi Chuyên Anh tại sở GD&ĐT TP. Cần Thơ năm học 2020-2021:




(Đề thi có 10 trang)


NĂM HỌC 2020-2021

Khóa ngày: 24 tháng 7 năm 2020


Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề


Bằng số Điểm

Bằng chữ Cán bộ chấm thi SỐ PHÁCH

Do Chủ tịch HĐCT ghi

Cán bộ chấm thi 1


Cán bộ chấm thi 2


Hướng dẫn:

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. Ghi các đáp án A, B, C hoặc D vào khung số dưới từng phần trắc nghiệm. Điền câu trả lời phần viết vào khoảng trống cho sẵn.

- Thí sinh có năm phút đọc trước câu hỏi phần nghe. Thời gian này không tính vào tổng thời gian của bài thi.

I. LISTENING (20 pts)

Part 1. You will hear people talking in five different situations. For questions 1-5, choose the best answer A, B or C. Write your answer in the numbered box. The recording will be played twice. (5 pts)

1. In a theatre box office, you hear this conversation. What does the man want to do? 

A. buy extra tickets for a different day

B. get a refund on his friend’s ticket

C. exchange his ticket

2. You hear someone talking on the phone. Who is she talking to?

A. her accountant B. her secretary C. her new client

3. You overhear two people talking. What are they talking about?

A. a film B. a DVD C. a live concert

4. You hear a man talking about his plans for next year. What does he intend to do? 

A. go to university B. change his job C. travel abroad

5. You hear a guide talking to a group of tourists. Where are they? 

A. in a museum B. in an amusement park C. in a library

Part 2. Listen to a conversation between a student and a university employee. For questions 6-10, choose the best answer 4, B, C or D. Write your answer in the numbered box. The recording will be played twice. (3 pts)

6. What are the speakers mainly discussing?

A. The schedule of exercise classes at the gym.

B. How to try out for the swimming team.

C. What the gym pass is used for.

D. The popularity of the new exercise classes at the gym.

7. Why does the woman’s initial excitement turn to disappointment?

A. She is told that all swimming classes are full.

B. She thought all sports activities were supervised by coaches.

C. She finds out that there are no swimming classes at her level.

D. She learns that she will have to pay extra for classes.

8. What does the man imply about people who play sports in the gym?

A. They do not need a gym pass.

B. They do not need an instructor to coach them.

C. They do not usually take swimming classes.

D. They must pay an extra fee to use the equipment.

9. Why does the woman make an appointment with the swimming instructor?

A. To complain about the gym’s policy.

B. To find out when the pool is available.

C. To apply for a job as an assistant swim instructor.

D. To find out which swimming class she should take.

10. What does the man imply when saying “But taking the class, that’s a different story”?

A. He disagrees with the woman. B. He wants to tell a story.

C. He wants to change the subject. D. He understands the woman’s point.

Part 3. For questions 11-20, you will hear a radio interview about a survey of popular films. Complete the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer in the space provided. The recording will be played twice. (10 pts)

An Internet questionnaire was completed by 11. __________ people.

By far the most popular type of film was 12. __________.

There were two popular themes: 13. __________ and good versus evil.

As regards location, people liked 14. __________ places such as jungles.

The most popular setting in terms of time was the 15. __________.

The male stars chosen, like Robert de Niro, were more 16. __________ than the female stars.

Popular female stars had 17. __________ as well as glamour.

Titles of the most popular films often consisted of 18. __________.

The film titles often included the name of a place or a 19. __________.

Listeners now have to vote for the best films of the 20. __________.


Part 1. Select the best option for each of the following questions from 21-37. (17 pts)

21. Angry? I was absolutely __________ when our appointment was cancelled for the third time.

A. annoyed B. irritated C. cross D. livid

22. __________ for the eventual arrival of the ferry, a fight would have broken out among the passengers.

A. Hadn’t it been B. If it had been C. Had it not been D. Unless it hadn’t been

23. I think soccer is the best __________ sport there is.

A. audience B. spectator C. congregation D. company

24. Roy had deliberately disobeyed her orders. She had no alternative __________ punish him.

A. apart from B. to C. but to D. than

25. Stop making that noise! You’re getting on my __________!

A. nerves B. muscles C. brains D. blood

26. In a small village of Europe __________.

A. do a lot of beautifully decorated house lie B. a lot of beautifully decorated house lie

C. lie lots of beautifully decorated houses D. lots of beautifully decorated house do lie

27. The two cars for sale were in poor condition, so I didn’t buy __________.

A. one of them B. both of them C. neither of them D. either of them

28. There __________ to have been 60 crates of olives in the order, not 600! 

A. mean B. means C. were meant D. was meant

29. I finally managed to __________ Simon to lend me his laptop. 

A. persuade B. say C. make D. allow

30. Hundreds of people applied for the job. Of these, only twenty applicants were __________ for the interview.

A. shortcut B. shortlisted C. short-staffed D. short-changed

31. I was passing their house, so I __________ Claire and Michael.

A. got on with B. came up with C. dropped in on D. ran into

32. If only he __________ with us, but his parents won’t let him.

A. comes B. could come C. had come D. could have come

33. Stop that tapping, will you? I’m trying to concentrate and it is driving me up the __________.

A. roof B. wall C. hill D. house

34. My sister and I may look alike, but in character we’re as different as __________.

A. bread and butter B. pepper and salt C. chalk and cheese D. black and white

35. He admitted taking a bride and he doesn’t think he’s __________ his chances of getting re-elected. 

A. blown B. wiped C. thrown D. pulled

36. As soon as Dad __________, we can leave.

A. has the car start B. was staring the car C. got started the car D. has got the car started

37. He loves cheese. He’s particularly __________ to Stilton.

A. interested B. partial C. attractive D. besotted

Part 2. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the space from 38-47 and write it in the table that follows. (10 pts)

Example: Thanks to the television people can get the latest information. (INFORM)

Rebuilding Coventry

In the late 30s, analysts knew that the centre of the historic town of Coventry in the West Midlands needed to be 38. (DEVELOP) __________. Plans had to be 39. (SHELF) __________ when the Second World War started in 1939. However, the architects’ opportunity 40. (MATERIAL) __________ when the city centre was 41. (PRACTISE) __________ destroyed during the war. Many buildings were 42. (REPAIR) __________ damaged and 43. (DEMOLISH) __________. work began. Aiming to create a much more spacious area for 44. (RESIDE) __________ to work and shop in, town planners came up with a radical idea. They would make the city more inhabitable by 45. (PEDESTRIAN) __________ the centre, preventing cars entering. There were 46. (OBJECT) __________ from local shopkeepers, who thought that it would have an impact on trade, but the planners went ahead. What was once a densely populated area became a pleasant, attractive place to visit. It was a real 47. (ARCHITECT) __________, achievement, one that many British towns have emulated since.


Part 1. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs 1-7 from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate letter (A-I) in boxes numbered 48-53. Paragraph 1 has been done as an example for you. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them. (6 pts)


A. Sleeplessness and discomfort

B. How sleep habits have changed

C. Long-term anxiety

D. Staying cool in summer

E. Sleep and security

F. Comparisons between good and bad sleep

G. The importance of sleep

H. The correct temperature for winter

I. Temporary problems

1. There’s nothing quite like the refreshment of a good night’s sleep; conversely there is much misery which comes from a restless night. The whole of the next day can be disturbed by a bad night, as the poor sleepless one drags him or herself through the day, snapping at friend and colleague alike. Hopefully the problem can be solved quickly so the next night is not so bad, because entrenched bad sleeping habits may lead to serious problems.

2. Why do we have bad nights? In some cases it is because of some traumatic event or emotional upset which deprives us of sleep. A good example would be if we are waiting for someone who is late coming home, or we are anticipating a serious examination, or are worried about some events which will occur the next day. The events may equally be something we are looking forward to, like a party or a celebration, so we cannot get to sleep for thinking about it. These bad nights are limited by the temporary nature of the events which cause them.

3. Anxiety is a great thief of sleep, and may settle into a pattern where the sufferer gets to bed and to sleep only to awaken in the early hours of the morning. This sort of chronic pattern may go on for a long time, and is a serious health issue. Opinions differ on the best way to handle this sort of sleep deprivation: the early morning is probably no time to try to resolve the issue which is causing the concern. The immediate solution at 2 am may be to get up and move around a little and then return to bed, ready to sleep. This method is advocated by people who have running nightmares about their problems if the just lie in bed and try to go back to sleep.

4. People may lose sleep because they are in greater or lesser degrees of pain. Here the problem becomes medical, and is beyond the scope of this article. Suffice it to say that a whole array of medicine is out there, and should be administered by experts.

5. People may find it hard to sleep because they are too hot or too cold. In hot, airless conditions even a standard fan will help immensely, and if there is a ceiling fan it should be set to move the air gently. Many people prefer to sleep with a window open to allow plenty of fresh air into the room, although in some places the fresh air may be accompanied by noise and mosquitoes.

6. The topic of bedding is often neglected. Bed clothes should be light and clean, and in summer they should be minimal. In winter people can resort to heavier blankets or the self-indulgence of the electric blanket, best used to heat the bed before anyone gets into it and then turned off. It is quite easy to over-estimate the number of blankets needed in winter, and many people make themselves too hot, kick the bedclothes off, and then wake up cold.

7. Finally, one must consider the part that habit plays in our lives, and our sleep. People often claim they cannot sleep in a strange bed. When we settle down for the night a powerful part of us demands to feel secure, and to know that nothing has changed since the last time we slept. Lead me to my bed!

Example: 0. Paragraph 1 G

48. Paragraph 2 __________

49. Paragraph 3 __________

50. Paragraph 4 __________

51. Paragraph 5 __________

52. Paragraph 6 __________

53. Paragraph 7 __________

Part 2. Read the following passage and select the best answer to each of the questions from 54-58. (5 pts)

Origins of the moon 

Throughout the 19th and 20th centuries, several astronomers advanced competing theories about how the moon formed. For example, in 1878, astronomer George Howard Darwin proposed the fission theory, which claimed that early in Earth’s formation, the planet began spinning extremely fast. Darwin believed that the rapid spinning motion caused a large chunk of Earth to break off and launch into space. This chunk then began orbiting Earth and became the moon. Another explanation, called the condensation theory, stated that while the solar system was still forming, a star exploded and left behind mass amounts of debris. According to the condensation theory, Earth and the moon formed from this debris at roughly the same time and through the same processes. 

These theories were accepted various degrees among the scientific community, and there was much debate among scientists about which one provided the most complete account of how the moon formed. Ultimately, the validity of both was undermined in the second half of the 20” century. At this time, newly available data from lunar missions revealed several inconsistencies between the assumptions of the theories and facts about the moon. For one, data collected on the moon showed that, at some point, the moon was subjected to intense heat. However, neither the fission theory nor the condensation theory involved processes that would result in intense heat. Furthermore, there is no evidence that Earth experienced similarly intense heat. Thus, both theories were deemed invalid. 

Data from lunar explorations also revealed another discrepancy with the condensation theory. According to the theory, the moon and Earth formed through the same process at the same time. Scientists pointed out that if Earth and the moon actually formed this way, they should have the same chemical composition. But when scientists obtained samples from the surface of the moon, they found that the chemical composition of the moon was different from that of Earth, which severely discredited the condensation theory. 

Information from lunar explorations played a large role in dispelling previous theories of lunar formation. However, it also helped astronomers formulate a theory that better explains how the moon was formed. Today, the most current and widely accepted explanation is called the giant impactor theory. According to this theory, all of the planets in the solar system formed at the same time. In addition to the planets that are currently in our solar system, scientists believe that a planet called Theia also developed at the same time. Theia was likely about 4,000 miles in diameter, roughly the size of Mars. During Earth’s formation, Theia crashed into Earth and disintegrated. Scientists believe that the collision between Earth and Theia caused at least two large chunks of Earth to break off. The larger of these chunks is thought to have become the moon. Meanwhile, scientists believe that the smaller chunk, which was probably about one-third the size of our moon, also orbited Earth for some time. These two pieces orbited Earth together for a period of time that lasted between 10 million and 100 million years. Then, the smaller moon was eventually destroyed when it collided into the larger one...

54. Based on the information in paragraph 1, what can be inferred about Darwin’s theory of moon formation?

A. It was the first theory of moon formation to gain wide acceptance.

B. It explained why Earth and the moon developed at different times.

C. It was inspired by other scientists’ work on the condensation theory.

D. It assumed that Earth and the moon were made of the same material.

55. The word “undermined” in paragraph 2 is closest in the meaning to __________.

A. dismissed B. expanded C. weakened D. proven

56. In paragraph 2, the author implies that __________.

A. the majority of scientists favored the condensation theory over the fission theory

B. the chemical composition of the moon was unknown until after the 1950s

C. data from lunar missions was not available to the entire scientific community

D. lunar exploration provided evidence to support the fission theory

57. The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to scientists’ finding that __________.

A. the Earth and the moon should have the same chemical composition

B. they got important samples from the moon’s surface to discredit the condensation theory

C. the chemical composition of the Earth and that of the moon was different

D. the moon and the Earth formed through the same process at the same time

58. Based on the information in paragraph 4, what is implied about the giant impactor theory?

A. It describes the creation of multiple moons.

B. It cannot explain what became of the planet Theia.

C. Its accuracy is still disputed by many astronomers.

D. It is closely based on the condensation theory.

Part 3. Read the following passage and select the best answer to each of the questions form 59-65. (7 pts) 


One of the most difficult aspects of deciding whether current climatic events reveal evidence of the impact of human activities is that it is hard to get a measure of what constitutes the natural variability of the climate. We know that over the past millennia the climate has undergone major changes without any significant human intervention. We also know that the global climate system is immensely complicated and that everything is in some way connected, and so the system is capable of fluctuating in unexpected ways. We need, therefore, to know how much the climate can vary of its own accord in order to interpret with confidence the extent to which recent changes are natural as opposed to being the result of human activities. 

Instrumental records do not go back far enough to provide us with reliable measurements of global climatic variability on timescales longer than a century. What we do know is that as we include longer time intervals, the record shows increasing evidence of slow swings in climate between different regimes. To build up a better picture of fluctuations appreciably further back in time requires us to use proxy records. 

Over long periods of time, substances whose physical and chemical properties change with the ambient climate at the time can be deposited in a systematic way to provide a continuous record of changes in those properties over time, sometimes for hundreds or thousands of years. Generally, the layering occurs on an annual basis, hence the observed changes in the records can be dated. Information on temperature, rainfall, and other aspects of the climate that can be inferred from the systematic changes in properties is usually referred to as proxy data. Proxy temperature records have been reconstructed from ice core drilled out of the central Greenland ice cap, calcite shells embedded in layered lake sediments in Western Europe, ocean floor sediment cores from the tropical Atlantic Ocean, ice cores from Peruvian glaciers, and ice cores from eastern Antarctica. While these records provide broadly consistent indications that temperature variations can occur on a global scale, there are nonetheless some intriguing differences, which suggest that the pattern of temperature variations in regional climates can also differ significantly from each other. 

What the proxy records make abundantly clear is that there have been significant natural changes in the climate over timescales longer than a few thousand years. Equally striking, however, is the relative stability of the climate in the past 10,000 years (the Holocene period). 

To the extent that the coverage of the global climate from these records can provide a measure of its true variability, it should at least indicate how all the natural causes of climate change have combined. These include the chaotic fluctuations of the atmosphere, the slower but equally erratic behavior of the oceans, changes in the land surfaces, and the extent of ice and snow. Also included will be any variations that have arisen from volcanic activity, solar activity, and, possibly, human activities.

59. According to paragraph 1, which of the following must we find out in order to determine the impact of human activities upon climate?

A. The major changes in climate over the past millennia.

B. The best method for measuring climatic change.

C. The degree to which the climate varies naturally.

D. The millennium when humans began to interfere with the climate.

60. According to paragraph 2, an advantage of proxy records over instrumental records is that __________.

A. they are more reliable measures of climatic variability in the past century

B. they provide information on climate fluctuations further back in time

C. they reveal information about the human impact on the climate

D. they provide more accurate measures of local temperatures

61. According to paragraph 3, scientists are able to reconstruct proxy temperature records by __________.

A. studying and dating changes in the properties of substances

B. inferring past climate shifts from observations of current climatic changes

C. observing changes in present-day climate conditions

D. studying regional differences in temperature variations

62. The word “striking” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.

A. true B. confusing C. noticeable D. unlikely

63. According to paragraphs 3 and 4, proxy data have suggested all of the following about the climate EXCEPT __________.

A. regional climates may change over time

B. global temperatures vary more than regional temperatures

C. the climate has changed very little in the past 10,000 years

D. important natural changes in climate have occurred over large timescales

64. The word “erratic” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.

A. dramatic B. important C. common D. unpredictable

65. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 5 as natural causes of climate change EXCEPT __________.

A. the slow movement of landmasses B. atmospheric changes

C. fluctuations in the amount of ice and snow D. changes in ocean activity

Part 4. Choose the best word that fits each gap from 66-70 of the passage. (5 pts)


Companies started branding products back in the 1800s. There were very few laws to regulate manufacturing in those days so there were plenty of dangerous products on sale, including fake medicines!

Reputable companies, 66. __________, started branding their own goods to show they were safe and of good quality. In order to 67. __________. these brands successfully, the companies turned to advertising. They discovered that good advertising can influence sales in a big way. Of course commercial advertising is big business nowadays. And it is everywhere! Switch on the TV, or go to the movies, and you’ll see ads for nearly everything. Sometimes you don’t even realise a product is being advertised. In the movie Minority Report, the character 68. __________ by Tom Cruise owns a phone on which the Nokia logo is clearly displayed, and his watch is engraved with the Bulgari logo, so you have no doubt about the make. 

Similarly, in the Bond film Casino Royale, the vehicles James Bond drives and the gadgets he uses have clear brand 69. __________. Hidden advertising like this is very 70. __________.

66. A. so B. therefore C. however D. although

67. A. market B. compete C. show D. appeal

68. A. reflected B. revealed C. played D. assumed

69. A. titles B. names C. signatures D. signs

70. A. affected B. effect C. affect D. effective

Part 5. Fill in each numbered space from 71-80 with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)

Many health experts have said that history may repeat 71. __________ . The World Health Organization has warned that the 72. __________ of the Covid-19 pandemic is yet to come. But with widespread unemployment and many companies battling to stay 73. __________, there are calls to end the social restrictions and reopen the economy. Tesla CEO Elon Musk has also lashed 74. __________ at government stay at home orders as “fascist”. And that’s a feeling shared by an increasing number of Americans. You heard Elon Musk’s comments, “I think that reflects a growing sentiment in this country where people want this to be over. So that is going to tug against 75. __________ the governors have to do. They have tough decisions to face”. 76. __________, many analysts have warned against reopening the economy too soon, which may derail current efforts to stem the crisis. The island of Hokkaido in the northern part of Japan was forced back into a lockdown after a second wave 77. __________ the region more severely than the first. Singapore, which was lauded for its early efforts to stem the pandemic, also recorded a second wave of infections in March, mainly from imported cases and migrant workers 78. __________ in packed dormitories. A survey of more than 40 prominent economists in the U.S. found that 80% agreed easing severe lockdown when infection risk remains high would lead to greater economic damage. As the debate 79. __________, when to reopen the economy drags on, the Spanish flu offers some clues. In 1918, the U.S. had no coordinated pandemic plans at a federal level. It was, therefore, left to local authorities to decide how and when to intervene to prevent the spread of the disease. The social distancing measures over a century ago are 80. __________ to the modern-day restrictions such as the closure of schools, offices and the banning of mass gatherings...

IV. WRITING (20 pts)

Part 1. For questions 81-90, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given. You must use between THREE to SIX words. Do not change the word given. (10 pts)

Here is an example:

What type of music do you like best? (FAVOURITE)

What is your favorite type of music?

81. He stands little chance of winning. (ODDS)

The ___________________________________________________________________________ winning.

82. Would you like to help produce a school magazine? (INVOLVED)

Would you like to _______________________________________________________ a school magazine?

83. They come in different shapes and sizes. (VARY)

They _____________________________________________________________________________ size.

84. The police stand little chance of finding the missing jewels. (TRACK)

It is doubtful ____________________________________________________________ the missing jewels.

85. Sue is crazy about Alan. (MADLY)

Sue _____________________________________________________________________________ Alan.

86. Charles cheated in his exams, and didn’t get caught. (GOT)

Charles cheated in his exams, and _________________________________________________________ it.

87. I just sat down as soon as the doorbell rang. (HAD)

Hardly _________________________________________________________________ the doorbell rang.

88. It was a waste of time worrying, after all! (NEEDN’T)

You __________________________________________________________________________, after all!

89. “You’ve passed your driving test, Tom! Well done!” said Carol. (ON)

Carol _______________________________________________________________________ driving test.

90. We cannot waste any time! (NO)

There ________________________________________________________________________________.

Part 2. Write a composition of about 200-250 words on the following topic. (10 pts)

Some people say that the young generation now spends too much time on personal enjoyment - doing things they like to do - rather than doing things they should do.

Do you agree with this point of view? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.

---------- HẾT ----------

Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.