Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi THPT lớp 12 cấp tỉnh Ninh Bình năm học 2019-2020 có đáp án

(SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH) ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH Năm học 2019–2020 MÔN TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi 12-09-2019 (Đề thi ngày 02 - Vòng 02)

     Kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi THPT (Trung học phổ thông) là một sự kiện quan trọng trong hệ thống giáo dục ở Việt Nam. Đây là cơ hội để những thí sinh có năng khiếu và tài năng vượt trội có thể thể hiện và được tuyển chọn vào các đội tuyển dự thi Quốc gia. Trong bài viết này, chúng tôi xin giới thiệu tài liệu "(SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH) ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH Năm học 2019–2020 MÔN TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi 12-09-2019 (Đề thi ngày 02 - Vòng 02) - Chọn đội tuyển HSG Dự thi Quốc gia" tại website Tài liệu diệu kỳ.

     Đề thi này là một tài liệu hữu ích để các thí sinh ôn thi môn Tiếng Anh. Với độ phân hóa cao, đề thi nhằm lập ra các đội tuyển dự thi Quốc Gia, những thí sinh xuất sắc nhất có cơ hội thể hiện tài năng của mình. Đề thi bao gồm cả 4 kỹ năng: Nghe, Nói, Đọc, Viết. Trong đó, phần thi nói chiếm tỷ lệ 02 trên tổng 20 điểm bài thi.

     Phần thi nói trong đề thi được tổ chức theo hình thức độc thoại. Thí sinh sẽ được ghi âm bằng máy và có 05 phút chuẩn bị trước khi trình bày trong 2 phút. Đây là một phần thi quan trọng đánh giá khả năng giao tiếp và sự tự tin của thí sinh.

     Với tài liệu này, các thí sinh có thể ôn tập và làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi THPT môn Tiếng Anh. Bên cạnh đó, website Tài liệu diệu kỳ cũng cung cấp nhiều tài liệu khác liên quan mà bạn có thể tham khảo để nâng cao kỹ năng Tiếng Anh của mình. 

     Hãy tải xuống file PDF "Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi THPT lớp 12 cấp tỉnh Ninh Bình năm học 2019-2020" tại website Tài liệu diệu kỳ để chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi này và thể hiện tài năng của bạn trong môn Tiếng Anh.

     Ngoài ra, bạn cũng có thể tìm thêm nhiều tài liệu hữu ích khác tại website Tài liệu diệu kỳ, bao gồm các đề thi, tài liệu ôn thi và nhiều nội dung giáo dục hấp dẫn khác để nâng cao kiến thức của mình.

     Hãy chuẩn bị kỹ càng và hướng đến thành công trong kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi THPT môn Tiếng Anh!

Tải xuống: (SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH) ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH Năm học 2019–2020 MÔN TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi 12-09-2019 (Đề thi ngày 02 - Vòng 02)

Trích dẫn nội dung "(SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH) ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH Năm học 2019–2020 MÔN TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi 12-09-2019 (Đề thi ngày 02 - Vòng 02)":


Năm học: 2019–2020


Ngày thi 12/9/2019

(Thời gian 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

Đề thi gồm 4 phần, trong 08 trang




(Do CTHĐ chấm ghi)

Bằng số:..................../18 điểm

Bằng chữ:................................

Giám khảo 1:..........................................

Giám khảo 2:..........................................

(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào các tờ đề thi)

PART A: LISTENING (4.0 points)

- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần.

- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh bằng tiếng Anh đã có trong từng phần nghe.

- Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.

I. Listen to a student called Jon giving a class presentation about the llama, an animal that comes

originally from South America. For questions 1-8, complete the sentences. Write NO MORE

THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered

boxes. (1.6 point)

1. Jon says that llamas and alpacas are generally distinguished by the shape of the _________.

2. Jon discovered that the wild ancestor of the llama was mostly _________in colour.

3. In ancient times, _________llamas most often worked in mining areas.

4. Jon says that the word _________is most often used by humans when talking about llamas.

5. Jon found out that well-trained llamas only spit and kick if they feel _________.

6. Jon describes the noise made by llamas for usual communication as a _________.

7. Jon says that llama fleece is popular with weavers because it contains no _________.

8. The commonest products made from llama hair are _________.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4.

5. 6. 7. 8.

II. Listen to a radio interview in which a young man called Toby Burrow is talking about a year

he spent doing voluntary work in Madagascar. For questions 9-14, choose the correct answer A,

B, C or D. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 point)

9. Why did Toby choose to work in Madagascar?

A. He thought it would offer interesting travel experiences.

B. He knew other students who had been there before him.

C. He believed it would offer challenging opportunities.

D. He had been influenced by a television programme.

10. How did Toby’s mother respond when he announced he was going to Madagascar?

A. She tried to dissuade him from taking the job.

B. She told him about her experience of working abroad.

C. She insisted he take measures to protect his health.

D. She did some research on the country.

11. What aspect of life in the village did Toby originally find hard?

A. the constant noise

C. the basic facilities

B. the lack of privacy

D. the sense of isolation

12. How did Toby feel after the incident with his wallet?

A. He wanted to quit his job and go home.

B. He thought it was a shame that not all people were honest.

C. He no longer trusted the people he worked with.



D. He believed he was partly responsible for the situation.

13. What does Toby say about his return to the UK?

A. He was eager to discuss his adventures with friends.

B. He felt relieved to be back in familiar surroundings.

C. He was keen to return to Madagascar.

D. He felt critical of his own country.

14. What advice does Toby offer students who are about to graduate?

A. Have the right attitude towards people you are helping.

B. Give up your voluntary work if you are unhappy.

C. Avoid just going abroad for your own pleasure.

D. Travel with someone you already know well.

Your answers:

9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

III. Listen to a conversation and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false

(F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 points)

15. Many famous and successful teenagers have used new technology.

16. Justin Bieber started off sending videos to talent scouts.

17. Some people say Justin Bieber is one of the most influential persons in the world because he is

Barack Obama’s friend.

18. A negative consequence of fame for Justin Bieber is he has very little privacy.

19. Tavi Gevinson started a fashion blog when she was 12 years old.

20. Tavi employs writers and photographers of all ages.

Your answers:

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (3.0 points)

I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the sentences. Write your

answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)

1. I couldn’t tell what time it was because the workmen had removed the________ of the clock.

A. hands B. pointers C. arms D. fingers

2. Can I ________ your brains for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself.

A. have B. pick C. mind D. use

3. She travelled the world in ________ of her dreams.

A. pursuit B. finding C. chase D. trail

4. The reason why he gets into trouble so often is that he has a _______ temper.

A. fast B. rapid C. speedy D. quick

5. ________ your time! We don’t have to be there until after 8 o’clock.

A. Pass B. Have C. Take D. Run

6. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working round the ________.

A. day B. clock C. hour D. night

7. Such ________ remarks can incite the masses to rebel especially in times of high unemployment

and widespread hardship.

A. flammable B. inflammatory C. ardent D. spirited

8. The swimmer ________ himself in water to test how long he can hold his breath.

A. emerged B. immersed C. submerged D. drenched

9. Marrying into such a big family had always been________ his wildest dreams.

A. under B. above C. over D. beyond

10. Unfortunately, somebody spoke to a reporter and the whole thing________.

A. poured forth B. spilled over C. leaked out D. splashed down


Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding

numbered boxes. (1.0 point)

Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds that regulate the

mechanisms by which the body converts food into energy. They should not be confused with minerals,

which are ________ (1. ORGANIC) in their makeup. Although in general the naming of vitamins

followed the ________ (2. ALPHABET) order of their ________ (3. IDENTIFY), the nomenclature

of individual substances may appear to be somewhat random and ________ (4. ORGANIZE). Among

the 13 vitamins known today, five are produced in the body. Because the body produces sufficient

quantities of some but not all vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet. Although each

vitamin has its specific ________ (5. DESIGNATE) and cannot be replaced by another compound, a

lack of one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of even one vitamin in a

diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result.

 The best way for an individual to ensure a necessary supply of vitamins is to maintain a

balanced diet that includes a variety of foods and provides adequate quantities of all the compounds.

Some people take vitamin supplements, ________ (6. PREDOMINATE) in the form of tablets. The

vitamins in such supplements are ________ (7. EQUAL) to those in food, but an adult who maintains

a balanced diet does not need a daily supplement. The ingestion of supplements is recommended only

to correct an existing deficiency due to ________ (8. BALANCE) diet, to provide vitamins known to

be lacking in a restricted diet, or to act as a ________ (9. THERAPY) measure in medical treatment.

________ (10. SPECIFY), caution must be exercised with fat-soluble substances, such as vitamins A

and D, because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious health hazard over a period of time.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write corrections in the

corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)













In primary schools, a child is in a comparative simple setting and most of the time forms

a relationship with one familiar teacher. On enter secondary school, a new world opens

up and frequently it is a much more difficult world. The pupil soon learns to be least

free in the way he speaks to teachers and even to his fellow pupils. He begins to lose the

free and easy ways of the primary school, so he senses the need for a more cautious

approach in the secondary school where there are older pupils. Secondary staff and

pupils suffers from the pressure of academic work and seem to have less time to stop

and talk. Teachers with specialist roles may see hundred of children in a week, and a

pupil may be able to form relationships with very little of the staff. He has to decide

which adults are approachable; good schools will make clear to every young person

from the first year what person help is available – but weather the reality of life in the

institution actually encourages requests for help is other matter.

 Your answers:

Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction

1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.



I. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with ONE suitable word. Write your answers

in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points)


 The number of (1) ______ fathers has increased considerably in recent years in Britain. We

spoke to one such dad, Steve Baker, about how he copes with it all. Steve, 43 years old, has brought up

his two teenage sons since he and his wife (2) ______ up two years ago. “It’s (3) ______ more difficult

for a man than it is for a woman,” says Steve. “It’s a full-time job, whoever you are. Fortunately, my

employers were very (4) ______ in the first new months and they let me take time off work to get

myself organized.

 As far as the housework is (5) ______, I don’t mind cooking, as I’ve always been good at that;

it’s the ironing I can’t (6) ______! Generally (7) ______, the boys and I get on very well together but

of course, sometimes we have rows. That’s when I really miss having someone there with me to help

me (8) ______. I have had a couple of relationships in the last two years but they haven’t (9) ______

out. That has a lot to do with the fact that I put my kids before anyone else, I take fatherhood very (10)


Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

II. Read the following passage and then choose the best answer A, B, C or D to the following

questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points)

Many prehistoric people subsisted as hunters and gatherers. Undoubtedly, game animals,

including some very large species, provided major components of human diets.

An important controversy centering on the question of human effects on prehistoric wildlife

concerns the sudden disappearance of so many species of large animals at or near the end of the

Pleistocene epoch. Most paleontologists suspect that abrupt changes in climate led to the mass

extinctions. Others, however, have concluded that prehistoric people drove many of those species to

extinction through overhunting. In their “Pleistocene overkill hypothesis,” they cite what seems to be a

remarkable coincidence between the arrival of prehistoric peoples in North and South America and the

time during which mammoths, giant round sloths, the giant bison, and numerous other large mammals

became extinct.

Perhaps the human species was driving others to extinction long before the dawn of history.

Hunter-gatherers may have contributed to Pleistocene extinctions in more indirect ways. Besides

overhunting, at least three other kinds of effects have been suggested: direct competition, imbalances

between competing species of game animals, and early agricultural practices. Direct competition may

have brought about the demise of large carnivores such as the saber-toothed cats. These animals

simply may have been unable to compete with the increasingly sophisticated hunting skills of

Pleistocene people.

Human hunters could have caused imbalances among game animals, leading to the extinctions

of species less able to compete. When other predators such as the gray wolf prey upon large mammals,

they generally take high proportions of each year’s crop of young. Some human hunters, in contrast,

tend to take the various age groups of large animals in proportion to their actual occurrence. If such

hunters first competed with the larger predators and then replaced them, they may have allowed

younger to survive each year, gradually increasing the populations of favored species. As these

populations expanded, they in turn may have competed with other game species for the same

environmental niche, forcing the less hunted species into extinction. This theory, suggests that human

hunters played an indirect role in Pleistocene extinctions by hunting one species more than another.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The effects of human activities on prehistoric wildlife.


B. The origins of the hunter-gatherer way of life.

C. The diets of large animals of the Pleistocene epoch.

D. The change in climate at the end of the Pleistocene epoch.

2. The word “Undoubtedly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. occasionally B. unexpectedly C. previously D. certainly

3. The word “sophisticated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. simple B. advanced C. specific D. difficult

4. Which of the following is mentioned as supporting the Pleistocene overkill hypothesis?

A. Many of the animals that became extinct were quite large.

B. Humans migrated into certain regions around the time that major extinctions occurred.

C. There is evidence that new species were arriving in areas inhabited by humans.

D. Humans began to keep and care for certain animals.

5. The word “demise” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. emergence B. re-emergence C. appearance D. death

6. The author mentions saber-toothed cats in paragraph 3 as an example of a carnivore that _______.

A. became extinct before the Pleistocene epoch.

B. was unusually large for its time.

C. was not able to compete with humans.

D. caused the extinction of several species.

7. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to_______.

A. human hunters B. game animals C. other predators D. large mammals

8. According to the passage, what is one difference between the hunting done by some humans and the

hunting done by gray wolves?

A. Some humans hunt more frequently than gray wolves.

B. Gray wolves hunt in larger groups than some humans.

C. Some humans can hunt larger animals than gray wolves can hunt.

D. Some humans prey on animals of all ages, but gray wolves concentrate their efforts on young


9. The word “favored” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. large B. escaping C. preferred D. local

10. According to the passage, the imbalances discussed in paragraph 3 may have resulted from _______.

A. the effect of climate changes on large game animals.

B. large animals moving into a new environment.

C. humans hunting some species more than others.

D. older animals not being able to compete with younger animals.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Write your answers in the

corresponding space provided and numbered boxes. (2.0 points)


The sense of smell, or olfaction, is powerful. Odours affect us on a physical, psychological and

social level. For the most past, however, we breathe in the aromas which surround us without being

consciously aware of their importance to us. It is only when the faculty of smell is impaired for some

reason that we begin to realise the essential role the sense of smell plays in our sense of well-being.

A A survey conducted by Anthony Synott at Montreal’s Concordia University asked participants

to comment on how important smell was to them in their lives. It became apparent that smell

can evoke strong emotional responses. A scent associated with a good experience can bring a

rush of joy, while a foul odour or one associated with a bad memory may make us grimace with


disgust. Respondents to the survey noted that many of their olfactory likes and dislikes were

based on emotional associations. Such associations can be powerful enough so that odours that

we would generally label unpleasant become agreeable, and those that we would generally

consider fragrant become disagreeable for particular individuals. The perception of smell,

therefore, consists not only of the sensation of the odours themselves, but of the experiences and

emotions associated with them.

B Odours are also essential cues in social bonding. One respondent to the survey believed that

there is no true emotional bonding without touching and smelling a loved one. In fact, infants

recognize the odours of their mothers soon after birth and adults can often identify their children

or spouses by scent. In one well-known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell

alone clothing worn by their marriage partners from similar clothing worn by other people. Most

of the subjects would probably never have given much thought to odour as a cue for identifying

family members before being involved in the test, but as the experiment revealed, even when not

consciously considered, smells register.

C In spite of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably the most

undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in which smell is

held is that, in comparison with its importance among animals, the human sense of smell is

feeble and undeveloped. While it is true that certain animals, they are still remarkably acute. Our

noses are able to recognise thousands of smells, and to perceive odours which are present only

in extremely small quantities.

D Smell, however, is a highly elusive phenomenon. Odours, unlike colours, for instance, cannot be

named in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t exist. ‘It smells like

…,’ we have to say when describing an odour, struggling to express our olfactory experience.

Nor can odours be reordered: there is no effective way to either capture or store them over time.

In the realm of olfaction, we must make do with descriptions and recollections. This has

implications for olfactory research.

E Most of the research on smell undertaken to date has been of a physical scientific nature.

Significant advances have been made in the understanding of the biological and chemical nature

of olfaction, but many fundamental questions have yet to be answered. Researchers have still to

decide whether smell is one sense or two-one responding to odours proper and the other

registering odourless chemicals in the air. Other unanswered questions are whether the nose is

the only part of the body affected by odours, and how smells can be measured objectively given

the non-physical components. Questions like these mean that interest in the psychology of smell

is inevitably set to play an increasingly important role for researchers.

F However, smell is not simply a biological and psychological phenomenon. Smell is cultural,

hence it is a social and historical phenomenon. Odours are invested with cultural values: smells

that are considered to be offensive in some cultures may be perfectly acceptable in others.

Therefore, our sense of smell is a means of, and model for, increasing with the world. Different

smells can provide us with intimate and emotionally charged experiences and the value that we

attach to these experiences is interiorised by the members of society in a deeply personal way.

Importantly, our commonly held feelings about smells can help distinguish us from other

cultures. The study of the cultural history of smell is, therefore, in a very real sense, an

investigation into the essence of human culture.

For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F. There are TWO extra

headings that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding space provided.


List of headings

i. The difficulties if talking about smells.

ii. The role of smell in personal relationships.

iii. Future studies into smell.

iv. The relationship between the colour and mental health.

v. The interpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups.

vi. Why our sense of smell is not appreciated.

vii. Why our sense of smell is highly appreciated.

viii. The relationship between smell and feelings.

Your answers:

1. Paragraph A: ___________ 2. Paragraph B: ___________ 3. Paragraph C: ___________

4. Paragraph D: ___________ 5. Paragraph E: ___________ 6. Paragraph F: ___________

For questions 7-10, choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your

answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

7. Tests have shown that odours can help people recognise the _______ belonging to their husbands

and wives.

8. Certain linguistic groups may have difficulty describing smell because they lack the appropriate


9. The sense of smell may involve response to_______which do not smell, in addition to obvious


10. Odours regarded as unpleasant in certain_______ are not regarded as unpleasant in others.

Your answers:

7. 8. 9. 10.

PART D: WRITING (5.0 points)

I. In about 250-300 words, write an essay on the following topic. (3.0 points)

Some people say that with the considerable benefits computers and the Internet bring

about, they can completely replace the traditional role of a teacher. To what extent do you agree

or disagree? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own

knowledge or experience.


II. The chart below shows the number of houses built per year in two cities, Derby and

Nottingham, between 2000 and 2009. Write a report of about 150 words describing the

information in the chart. (2.0 points)

The end