Đề thi Chuyên Tiếng Anh tỉnh Lào Cai năm học 2021-2022 có đáp án

Đề thi Chuyên Tiếng Anh tỉnh Lào Cai năm học 2021-2022 có đáp án

Đề thi Chuyên Tiếng Anh tỉnh Lào Cai năm học 2021-2022 có đáp án của Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo là một tài liệu quan trọng mà các học sinh và phụ huynh quan tâm đến kỳ thi Tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên. Tài liệu này không chỉ giúp các em học sinh kiểm tra lại các kiến thức mà còn là cơ hội để hiểu rõ hơn về cấu trúc và nội dung của Bài thi Tiếng Anh (chuyên), qua đó giúp các em chuẩn bị tốt và đạt kết quả cao trong kì thi quan trọng này.

Đề thi Chuyên Anh tại tỉnh Lào Cai bao gồm 5 phần chính: Nghe hiểu, Ngữ pháp và từ vựng, Đọc hiểu, và Viết, mỗi phần có mục tiêu và cấu trúc riêng biệt.

Phần Nghe hiểu (Listening) gồm các bài nghe đa dạng, từ đoạn hội thoại đơn giản đến phức tạp, giúp kiểm tra khả năng phân biệt và xử lý thông tin nghe được. Phần Ngữ pháp và từ vựng (Lexico and Grammar) đòi hỏi học sinh chọn đáp án đúng từ một danh sách các lựa chọn, kiểm tra hiểu biết về cấu trúc ngữ pháp và vốn từ vựng.

Trong phần Đọc hiểu (Reading), học sinh phải trả lời các câu hỏi dựa trên nội dung các bài đọc, đánh giá khả năng hiểu và phân tích văn bản. Cuối cùng, phần Viết (Writing) yêu cầu học sinh viết các đoạn văn hoặc bài luận ngắn, kiểm tra khả năng tổ chức ý tưởng và biểu đạt chính xác và mạch lạc.

Đáng chú ý, tại kỳ thi TS lớp 10 tại Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Lào Cai có phần thi Speaking chiếm 1 điểm trong tổng điểm toàn bài thi. Dưới đây là Đề thi chính thức và Hướng dẫn chấm của Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh (chuyên 2) tại tỉnh Lào Cai năm 2021.

Tải xuống: Đề thi Chuyên Tiếng Anh tỉnh Lào Cai năm học 2021-2022

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN

NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Chuyên 2)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

I. LISTENING (20 pts)

Part 1. (10 pts): 1 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. T

2. F

3. T

4. F

5. F

Part 2: 1 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

6. light

7. 285

8. RAMDHANIE

9. bowls

10. shirt

11. 180

12. library

13. sandwich

14. station

15. 0217856361

Part 3: 1 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

16. C

17. C

18. A

19. B

20. C

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Part 1: 0,5 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. A

6. D

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. B

11. C

12. B

13. B

14. C

15. B

16. D

17. B

18. A

19. B

20. D

Part 2. (5 pts) 1 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng (chỉ tính được lỗi mà không sửa được lỗi: 0,5 điểm/ lỗi)

0. (Line 1) making  To make

1. (Line 2) as  more

2. (Line 4) has  have

3. (Line 7) currently  current

4. (Line 9) time  times

5. (Line 10) which  what

Part 3. (5 pts) 0.5 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. disappointed

2. disastrous

3. marriage

4. amazingly

5. extremely

6. absent

7. personal

8. expectation(s)

9. treatment

10. visitors

Part 4. (5 pts) 0.5 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. at

2. for

3. in

4. with

5. off

6. under

7. up

8. on

9. without

10. down

Part 5: 0,5 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. to be paid

2. will have saved

3. persuading

4. were handed

5. have attended

6. to explain

7. didn’t tell/ did not tell

8. wait

9. will be sitting

10. send

III. READING (20 pts)

Part 1. (5.0 pts): 0.5 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. A

2. B

3. A

4. D

5. C

6. C

7. B

8. D

9. C

10. C

Part 2: 1 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. B

2. C

3. A

4. D

5. B

Part 3. (5.0 pts): 1 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. A

5. C

Part 4: 0,5 điểm cho mỗi câu đúng

1. was

2. from

3. at

4. which/ that

5. without

6. most

7. of

8. like

9. to

10. more

III. WRITING (20 pts)

Part 1. (5 pts) (1 pt each correct answer)

1. He hasn’t taken part in an online conference for two weeks.

2. Charlie said he had been waiting for the director all morning.

3. The football match was cancelled because of the bad weather.

4. Peter is good at building robotic models.

5. Online learning is said to be beneficial to students.

Part 2:

1. Had they not prepared well for the party, it wouldn’t have been a success.

Had it not been for their good preparation for the party, it wouldn’t have been a success.

2. If only my best friend could come to visit me this summer.

3. It was such a popular concert that all the tickets were sold out.

4. Jack denied having thrown/ throwing the rubbish into the river.

5. No sooner had Kathy completed high school than she decided to study abroad.

Part 3 (10 pts)

1. Consistency (2 points)

• The main idea is clearly stated

• The argument is coherent, relevant to the topic, and logically concluded

• Consistent use of specialized terminology throughout the text

2. Development (2 points)

• Developing a logical argument

• Providing evidence, examples, etc., to support one’s opinion

3. Use of Language (2 points)

• Using appropriate language for the context

• Using language suitable for the genre, style

• Using language appropriate to the specialists in the field

4. Content (2 points)

• Convincing the reader with arguments

• Providing evidence, examples, and reasoning

• Addressing potential objections that might be raised by less than 5% of the audience

5. Grammar, Punctuation, and Spelling (2 points)

• Correct use of punctuation

• Correct spelling: Each spelling error will result in a 1% deduction from the total score

• The same spelling error repeated is counted as one error

• Correct use of grammatical structures, the structure of each sentence is grammatically correct

• Each grammar or punctuation error will result in a 1% deduction from the total score

Total: 10 points

SPEAKING (10 pts)

1. Fluency and coherence: 3 pts

• Ability to produce long responses.

• How easily the candidate can produce long responses.

• The amount of hesitation.

• The speed of speech.

• Use of discourse markers/ linking phrases/ connectives.

• The amount of self-correction.

2. Lexical resources: 2 pts

• Ability to use less common words.

• Use of idiomatic language.

• Paraphrasing (explaining words that you don’t know).

• Ability to talk about unfamiliar topics.

• Ability to convey precise meaning.

3. Grammatical range and accuracy: 3 pts

• Sentence formation.

• Use of clauses (subordinate etc.).

• Use of complex structures.

• Range of tense use.

• Error density (the amount of errors in each sentence).

• The level of errors (whether the errors occur in basic or complex structures).

4. Pronunciation: 2 pts

• How easily the examiner understands what is being said.

• Word stress.

• Sentence stress.

• Intonation.

• Evidence of first language accent.

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Các câu hỏi trong đề thi chính thức Chuyên Anh tại tỉnh Lào Cai

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN

NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Chuyên 2)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

I. LISTENING (20 pts)

Part 1. You will hear a conversation between a girl called Julia and her father. For questions 1-5, listen and decide whether these statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 pts)

1. Julia thinks there is still a lot of time before deciding her course.

2. Julia’s father thinks that studying business may be boring.

3. Julia’s father believes Julia’s friend is making the wrong choice.

4. Julia’s father thinks she might find studying business too difficult.

5. Julia is not confident about her Maths.

Part 2. You will hear a conversation between a manager of a community center and a woman. For questions 6-15, complete the blanks with ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER. (10 pts)

ART CLASSES AT BRAMLEY COMMUNITY CENTRE

Class Things to bring Fees/ Timetable Tutor

“Movement and 6. __________”: painting in the style of French impressionists a set of brushes is essential The cost is 7. __________ for two terms Monday evenings 6-8 p.m., Room 1 A local artist called Steve 8. __________

“Clay Basics”: using the pottery wheel to make several 9. __________ an old 10. __________ would be a good idea The cost is 11. $ __________ per term Every Thursday 

6:30-8:30 p.m., Room 3 Theresa Clark – her work is displayed in the community center

“Sketching Architecture”: drawing old buildings, starting with the 12. __________ people usually take a fold-up chair and a 13. __________ The cost is $160 per term Fridays 11-1 p.m. meet at the corner of Victoria Street and 14. __________ Road Annie Li Annie’s cell phone number: 15. __________

Part 3. You will hear a man called John Miller talking about his new book, The Story of Ice Cream. For questions 16-20, choose the correct answer A, B or C which best fits what you hear. (5 pts)

16. What was in the ice cream eaten by the ancient Romans?

A. fruit and syrup B. cream and snow C. fruit and ice

17. In France in 1775 ice cream?

A. was too expensive even for rich people.

B. was eaten by most of the population.

C. was an unusual luxury.

18. What was different about “hokey pokey”?

A. A lot of ordinary people could afford to buy it.

B. It was made in Italy.

C. It was served in clean glasses.

19. What does the interviewer think is a “typical” ice cream?

A. an ice cream with different flavours.

B. an ice cream in a cone.

C. an ice cream with a wafer biscuit stuck in the top of it.

20. What problem did the ice cream seller have?

A. He lost his glasses.

B. Nobody wanted to buy ice cream.

C. He had nothing to serve his ice creams in.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Part 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete the following sentences. (10 pts)

1. Kevin and his best friend go to __________ school on foot every day.

A. the B. a C. an D. no article

2. When I lived downtown, I __________ to the cinema almost every night.

A. was going B. have gone C. went D. will go

3. I suggest we __________ carefully before carrying out the project.

A. discussing B. should discuss C. discussed D. are discussing

4. “__________ have you lived in this beautiful city?” - “About three years”

A. How often B. How long C. How far D. How many

5. The employees __________ you have just met have been working here for many years.

A. whom B. what C. which D. whose

6. If her parents allowed her to keep a pet, she __________ to raise a rabbit.

A. had chosen B. will choose C. choose D. would choose

7. Two students from Lao Cai High School for gifted students won the third prize __________ by the American Psychological Association at Intel ISEF 2021.

A. presented B. was presented C. presenting D. present

8. It was not until she met him __________ she knew the truth.

A. than B. that C. then D. when

9. Neither Tim nor his classmates __________ water polo before.

A. has played B. are playing C. have played D. is playing

10. While most of the students prefer working in groups, Jimmy like working __________.

A. on himself B. on his own C. of his own D. in himself

11. It is high time you __________ to apply yourself to your study.

A. begin B. to begin C. began D. begun

12. His uncle bought him a __________ bicycle on his birthday last week.

A. black beautiful Japanese B. beautiful black Japanese

C. Japanese black beautiful D. black Japanese beautiful

13. Laura is talking to her friend, Mina. 

- Laura: “You look great in that new dress.” 

- Mina: “__________”

A. No, I think so. B. Thanks. I bought it at Zara store.

C. Yes, I’d love to. D. Oh, you don’t like it, do you?

14. The boy often plays sports after school, __________?

A. has he B. does he C. doesn’t he D. hasn’t he

15. Mr. Liam takes the __________ for the management of the company.

A. responsible B. responsibility C. responsibly D. response

16. All students were very __________ to be back to school after a long time.

A. excitement B. exciting C. excite D. excited

17. __________, her reputation remained intact despite her failure at the contest.

A. It may seem as strange B. Strange as it may seem

C. May as it seems strange D. Strange it may be

18. My daughter usually worries about __________ badly in front of other people.

A. performing B. perform C. to perform D. performance

19. The more noise you make, __________ annoyed I get.

A. the most B. the more C. the much D. the many

20. Oil resources are decreasing. __________, we need to find alternative sources of energy.

A. However B. Nevertheless C. Moreover D. Therefore

Part 2. The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and correct them in the space provided. (5 pts)


1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10 Technological tools

New surveys 0. suggests that the technological tools are killing our leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations. We are as stressed than ever because the use of technology is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure. Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually and creatively. Moreover, they would have more time to explore the arts, keep up with currently events, and hang out with their friends and family. However, here we are at the start of the 21st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom time in human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. It would seem that technology almost never does which we expect.

This passage discusses the irony of technological advancements, which were initially thought to reduce workload and increase leisure time but have instead contributed to longer work hours and reduced privacy.


Part 3. Use the words given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. (5 pts)

1. To be honest, I was __________ at the result of the game. DISAPPOINT

2. The spread of fatal diseases has caused __________ consequences for the country. DISASTER

3. Their __________ took place in the church 30 years ago. MARRY

4. She won the first prize for her __________ performance in the competition. AMAZE

5. He became __________ interested in business, so he changed his course. EXTREME

6. Yesterday George was __________ from class because he had a cold. ABSENCE

7. You should not give your __________ information to strangers. PERSON

8. Unfortunately, the new software has failed to meet our __________. EXPECT

9. The __________ seems to be effective and his health is better now. TREAT

10. The number of __________ to my town has increased considerably so far. VISIT

Part 4. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (5 pts)

1. __________ the end of the story, the man met his family and lived happily forever.

2. This town is well-known __________ its spring festivals.

3. Mary is __________ a hurry because she is having an important interview.

4. Your website has provided me __________ a lot of information.

5. The plane took __________ just a few minutes ago.

6. Medical staff are __________ pressure to prevent the pandemic.

7. A group of experts has been set __________ to investigate the problem.

8. My mother reminded me to put __________ my coat before going out.

9. I cannot do anything __________ my mobile phone. I always keep it with me.

10. This information is important so make sure you write it __________.

Part 5. Give the correct form of verbs given to complete the following sentences. (5 pts)

1. The workers went on strikes because they want __________ better wages. PAY

2. By the time my father retires, he __________ $100,000. SAVE

3. The boy has __________ his parents to allow him to take part in the singing competition. PERSUADE

4. When I was small, most of my clothes __________ down to me by my elder sister. HAND

5. This is the first time that I __________ such an important event. ATTEND

6. It took the manager two hours __________ to us the new plan. EXPLAIN

7. Frankly speaking, I’d rather you __________ anyone about my address. NOT/TELL

8. It’s not fair to make your cat __________ in the car on such a hot day. WAIT

9. Mary __________ for her entrance exam at this time next Friday. SIT

10. You’d better __________ a letter to express your gratitude for your beloved teacher. SEND

III. READING (20 pts)

Part 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer among A, B, C or D. (5 pts)

1. __________ the type of pollution varies, all forms of non-renewable energy sources are to a greater or lesser extent polluting. Coal, in common with other fossil 2. __________, produces Sulphur dioxide, though, in this respect, gas compares very favorably 3. __________ coal and oil. The combustion of fossil fuels produces carbon dioxide in 4. __________ greater amounts than plant life can use. This carbon dioxide, by accumulating in the atmosphere, may well 5. __________ to global rises in 6. __________ (called the “greenhouse effect”) and such rises could in time have a 7. __________ effect on climate. Nuclear fuel doesn’t emit gases into the atmosphere 8. __________ it is used, but it produces its own 9. __________ toxic waste products. All forms of fuel mentioned so far add to the earth’s heat load and in this way provide a long-term 10. __________ to the environment.

1. A. Although B. In spite of C. Despite D. Because of

2. A. energies B. fuels C. resources D. mines

3. A. with B. of C. from D. about

4. A. more B. well C. quite D. much

5. A. make B. let C. lead D. cause

6. A. atmosphere B. pollution C. temperature D. houses

7. A. harmless B. serious C. useful D. active

8. A. which B. what C. that D. when

9. A. rarely B. hardly C. highly D. barely

10. A. endangered B. dangerous C. danger D. dangerously

Part 2. Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question. (5 pts)

What makes people give money to charity? One reason is altruism, the unselfish desire to help other people and make the world a better place. For example, religious institutions receive the highest percentage of donations in the United States. Colleges and universities often receive gifts from successful graduates who want to widen educational opportunities for other students or support research on an issue they feel is important. Hospital and medical research organizations are often supported by donors who have been affected by a medical problem, either directly or through the experience of family members or friends. Many donors give to causes that have touched them personally in some way. 

Charitable gifts can also be made for reasons involving personal interest. Under U.S. tax law, an individual does not have to pay income tax on money that is donated to charity. For extremely wealthy individuals, this can mean millions of dollars they do not have to pay in taxes to the government. In addition to tax benefits, donors often receive favorable publicity for making donations, and they have an opportunity to influence the world around them. For instance, new buildings at colleges and universities are often named after important donors, which means that they will be remembered for their generosity for many years to come. 

1. What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Charity activities B. Charitable giving C. Being influential D. Unselfish desire

2. In the U.S, the highest percentage of donations goes to __________.

A. colleges and universities B. research organizations

C. religious institutions D. educational institutions

3. The word “favorable” in the passage is CLOSEST in meaning to __________.

A. positive B. independent C. negative D. dependent

4. The pronoun “they” in the last sentence refers to __________.

A. benefits B. donations C. buildings D. donors

5. According to the passage, which of the following statement is NOT TRUE?

A. Altruism is the unselfish desire to help other people.

B. In the U.S., all charity events are held by the government.

C. Successful graduates often send gifts to their colleges and universities.

D. Many people give away money to charity for the sake of themselves.

Part 3. Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question. (5 pts)

Google Books is a service provided by Google that catalogs books by scanning them and making them searchable online. The project kicked off in 2004 with the ambitious goal creating the largest body of human knowledge ever and making it available online. To date, Google Books has scanned over 30 million books into its catalog. By the end of the decade, its goal is to cover every book that is currently available.

Using Google Books is quite convenient, as it is integrated into Google’s search engine. When searching for a book that Google Books has in its catalog, users can access some contents of the books depending on its copyright status. If a work is considered to be in the public domain, as many old books are, they can read the entire thing. However, if a book is still under copyright, the searcher will often be able to preview a few pages. In some cases, when an author has not given permission to display their work, only a few random lines of text from the book will be displayed.

Although most book lovers and researchers are thrilled that Google has scanned so many books, several publishers are upset by the company’s actions. They believe that Google Books is hurting their business. In 2005, a group of publishers joined together to sue Google claiming massive copyright violations. In response, Google claimed that its procedures were in line with the concept of fair use, which specifies that it is legal to display parts of copyrighted works if it is for educational purposes.

1. What is the main purpose of Google Books?

A. To put every book available online B. To encourage people to read more often

C. To print millions of textbooks for free D. To help publishers earn more money

2. What will users see if an author does NOT give Google Books permission?

A. They can view the whole book. B. They will only see a few sentences.

C. They can read one or two chapters. D. They will not see anything at all.

3. The word “thrilled” in the passage is CLOSEST in meaning to __________.

A. concerned B. worried C. excited D. bored

4. Why are publishers bothered with Google Books?

A. They think Google is hurting their work. B. The author’s names are listed on books.

C. Most publishers are against e-book sales. D. They feel that Google costs a lot of money.

5. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Google Books has scanned over 30 billion books so far.

B. All publishers agree with Google’s actions.

C. It is quite convenient to use Google Books.

D. The project of Google Books started in 2005.

Part 4. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (5 pts) 

Have you ever had a really boring job? When I 1. __________ a student, I did lots of different jobs during the summer vacation, ranging 2. __________ picking fruit to working for a furniture removal company. Fruit picking is hard work, but 3. __________ least you are outside and have the company of other pickers. Probably the least pleasant job 4. __________ I had was working in the fridge of a butcher's shop where I had to sort pieces of chickens. But 5. __________ a doubt, the prize for the 6. __________ boring job has to go to the one I had working for a sports equipment company. My task was to put six table tennis balls into boxes. They left me in a room with a huge container of thousands of balls. I was stuck out 7. __________ sight at the back of the storeroom without even a radio for company. A day in the room felt 8. __________ a month. There is one funny thing I remember: there were supposed 9. __________ be two speeds of ball: one fast and one that was slower for 10. __________ experienced players. The thing was, they were actually the same ball, they just went into different boxes!

IV. WRITING (20 pts)

Part 1. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean the same as those printed before them. (5 pts)

1. He last took part in an online conference two weeks ago. 

He hasn’t _________________________________________________________________________________

2. “I have been waiting for the director all morning,” said Charlie. 

Charlie said _______________________________________________________________________________

3. They cancelled the football match because of the bad weather. 

The football match __________________________________________________________________________

4. Peter can build robotic models very well. 

Peter is good _______________________________________________________________________________

5. People say that online learning is beneficial to students. 

Online learning _____________________________________________________________________________

Part 2. Rewrite the sentences, using the given words. (5 pts)

1. If they hadn’t prepared well for the party, it wouldn’t have been a success. NOT

Had ______________________________________________________________________________________

2. It’s pity that my best friend can’t come to visit me this summer. ONLY

If ________________________________________________________________________________________

3. The concert was so popular that all the tickets were sold out. SUCH

It was ____________________________________________________________________________________

4. “I didn’t throw the rubbish into the river,” Jack said. DENIED

Jack _____________________________________________________________________________________

5. Kathy decided to study abroad as soon as she had completed high school. THAN

No ______________________________________________________________________________________

Part 3. Due to the spread of Covid-19 pandemic, many people choose to work from home. In your opinion, what are the advantages of working from home?

Write a paragraph (about 140 words) to express your own opinion. Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. (10 pts)

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Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.