Đề Tiếng Anh vào 10 An Giang 2026-2027 (WORD + PDF)

Đề Tiếng Anh vào 10 An Giang 2026-2027_page-0001

Chiều ngày 02/06/2026, gần 39.600 thí sinh trên địa bàn tỉnh An Giang bước vào bài thi môn Tiếng Anh trong kỳ thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 THPT năm học 2026-2027. Đây cũng là kỳ tuyển sinh đầu tiên được tổ chức sau khi thực hiện sáp nhập địa giới hành chính và vận hành mô hình chính quyền địa phương hai cấp. Tài liệu diệu kỳ cập nhật đầy đủ đề thi Tiếng Anh vào 10 An Giang 2026-2027, kèm file WORD, PDF và đáp án mã đề 246 để bạn đọc thuận tiện tham khảo, đối chiếu kết quả.

Tổng quan cấu trúc đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 An Giang năm 2026–2027

Phát âm: 1–2 (phát âm -ed, nguyên âm)

Trọng âm: 3–4 (trọng âm từ 2–3 âm tiết)

Ngữ pháp – từ vựng: 5–12 (từ vựng sức khỏe, môi trường, nghề nghiệp, collocation, quá khứ tiếp diễn, từ để hỏi + to V, so sánh kép, mệnh đề quan hệ)

Sắp xếp hội thoại, thư, đoạn văn: 13–15 (hội thoại chỉ đường, thư tư vấn, đoạn văn môi trường)

Từ đồng nghĩa: 16–17 (useful, tourist attraction)

Từ trái nghĩa: 18–19 (protect, look back on)

Điền từ vào đoạn văn (Văn hóa Ấn Độ): 20–25 (giới từ, liên từ, từ loại, to V, động từ khuyết thiếu, từ vựng ngữ cảnh)

Tìm lỗi sai: 26–29 (V-ing/to V, đại từ quan hệ, câu tường thuật, trạng từ)

Viết lại câu: 30–32 (wish, thì hiện tại hoàn thành, câu tường thuật dạng Yes/No question)

Kết hợp câu: 33–34 (so…that, unless)

Đọc hiểu (Công nghệ bảo vệ động vật hoang dã): 35–40 (thông tin chi tiết, từ thay thế, ý chính, suy luận, thông tin không được đề cập)

📥Download đề thi Tiếng Anh vào 10 An Giang 2026-2027 (WORD + PDF)

Chiều thi đã khép lại, nhưng hành trình chinh phục cánh cửa THPT của các em vẫn đang tiếp tục. Hy vọng rằng những nỗ lực bền bỉ trong suốt năm học sẽ được đền đáp bằng kết quả xứng đáng. Chúc các sĩ tử An Giang tự tin đón nhận tin vui tuyển sinh và sớm đặt những bước chân đầu tiên trên ngôi trường cấp 3 mà mình hằng mong ước. 🍀📚✨

Đáp án mã đề 246

1. A

2. D

3. A

4. B

5. B

6. C

7. D

8. B

9. D

10. A

11. D

12. D

13. C

14. A

15. A

16. C

17. D

18. C

19. B

20. A

21. B

22. D

23. B

24. C

25. B

26. A

27. B

28. A

29. D

30. B

31. C

32. B

33. A

34. A

35. D

36. D

37. C

38. C

39. D

40. C

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

AN GIANG

(Đề thi có 04 trang)    KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT

NĂM HỌC 2026 – 2027 

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Ngày thi: 02/6/2026

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Họ, tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………………………….. 

Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………………. 

Đề thi có 40 câu hỏi. Thí sinh làm bài trên Phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from those of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)

Question 1. A. needed   B. asked    C. missed   D. stopped

Question 2. A. time     B. nine     C. lighta   D. milk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)

Question 3. A. report   B. talent   C. office   D. future

Question 4. A. deliver  B. concentrate    C. remember D. endanger

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (2.0 points)

Question 5. Doing exercise and eating a _______ diet is the key to good health.

A. modern   B. healthy  C. mental   D. physical

Question 6. We should try to _______ the use of plastic bags to protect the environment.

A. come down with B. get on with    C. cut down on    D. run out of

Question 7. Choosing a _______ that you love is essential for a happy life.

A. salary   B. office   C. passion  D. career

Question 8. Teenagers should _______ enough sleep to improve their concentration before the final exams.

A. keep     B. get      C. take     D. bring

Question 9. When the fire broke out, the neighbors _______ in the garden.

A. talked   B. are talking    C. have talked    D. were talking

Question 10. I’m not sure _______ to invite to the school party because the guest list is too long.

A. who      B. what     C. where    D. when

Question 11. The harder he studied for the test, _______ he felt.

A. the most confident   B. most confident C. more confident D. the more confident

Question 12. Hoi An, _______ attracts many tourists, is well-known for its yellow houses.

A. that     B. where    C. who      D. which

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a meaningful dialogue/letter/paragraph in each of the following questions. (0.75 point)

Question 13.    

a. Mi: Sure. It’s just around the corner.

b. Ann: Thanks a lot.

c. Ann: Could you tell me where the bus stop is?

A. a – c – b      B. a – b – c      C. c – a – b      D. b – c – a

Question 14. 

Dear John,

a. Finally, consider the cost of living and job opportunities there.

b. I’m writing to give you some advice on choosing a city to live in.

c. Firstly, you should research the public transport system and local amenities.

d. Also, don’t forget to check the air quality and noise level in the area.

e. I hope my advice will be useful to you.

Best wishes,

Mary

A. b – c – d – a – e    B. a – c – d – b – e    C. b – c – e – a – d    D. c – b – a – e – d

Question 15.

a. For example, they can use solar panels to save electricity.

b. There are several ways for teenagers to protect the environment.

c. In addition, joining local clean-up activities helps keep the neighborhood green.

d. By doing these small actions, they can contribute to a better planet.

e. Another way is to reduce the use of plastic bags in daily life.

A. b – a – e – c – d    B. a – e – c – b – d    C. b – c – a – e – d    D. b – a – d – e – c

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)

Question 16. Learning a new language is a very useful experience for teenagers.

A. expensive      B. boring   C. helpful  D. difficult

Question 17. Ha Long Bay is a famous tourist attraction in Viet Nam.

A. shopping mall  B. landscape of mountains

C. craft village  D. place of interest

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)

Question 18. Governments and organizations should work together to protect the natural habitats of endangered species.

A. maintain B. preserve C. damage   D. conserve

Question 19. The older generation often likes to look back on the old days when life was simpler.

A. remind   B. forget   C. recall   D. remember

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1.5 points)

India is famous (20) _______ its culture and food. Many people around the world know about Indian traditions and enjoy Indian dishes. Some people even travel to India to study them (21) _______ they are very interesting and different. India has also given the world many useful ideas for health and well-being.

One famous tradition from India is yoga. Yoga is a group of exercises for the body and mind. In yoga, people move their bodies into different positions and do breathing exercises. These (22) _______ help people relax and stay fit. Today, yoga is popular in many countries and people of all ages enjoy doing it.

Another important tradition is Ayurveda. Ayurveda is a very old type of medicine from India. If people want (23) _______ healthy, they should use it. With medicine from plants, exercise, and special diets, Ayurveda helps people feel better. It is different for each person because everyone has different needs.

Meditation is also an old Indian tradition. People sit quietly, close their eyes, and think calmly. They meditate so that they (24) _______ feel well and happy. Meditation can also help people relax their (25) _______ after a busy day.

(Adapted from Life Vision_Elementary Culture Lessons)

Question 20.      A. for      B. on C. with     D. about

Question 21.      A. although B. because  C. so D. but

Question 22.      A. active   B. act      C. actively D. activities

Question 23.      A. stayed   B. to stay  C. staying  D. stay

Question 24.      A. must     B. should   C. can      D. need

Question 25.      A. feeling  B. mind     C. spirit   D. memory

Read each sentence and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting. (1.0 point)

Question 26. I enjoy to walk on the clean streets of our new neighbourhood every morning.

A. to walk  B. clean    C. our      D. every

Question 27. The tourists met a friendly local guide which owns a small hotel near the beach.

A. friendly B. which    C. small    D. near

Question 28. She said she will visit Ha Long Bay with her friends the following week.

A. will     B. with     C. her      D. following

Question 29. If you want to maintain your health, you should exercise regular.

A. want     B. maintain C. should   D. regular

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions. (0.75 point)

Question 30. I don’t have enough time to finish all my tasks.

A. I wish I have enough time to finish all my tasks.

B. I wish I had enough time to finish all my tasks.

C. I wish I would have enough time to finish all my tasks.

D. I wish I didn’t have enough time to finish all my tasks.

Question 31. The last time I played a computer game was two months ago.

A. I played a computer game during two months.

B. I haven’t played a computer game since two months.

C. I haven’t played a computer game for two months.

D. I have played a computer game for two months.

Question 32. “Are you planning to get formal training for your new career?” he asked me.

A. He asked me if I am planning to get formal training for your new career.

B. He asked me if I was planning to get formal training for my new career.

C. He asked me whether was I planning to get formal training for my new career.

D. He asked me that I was planning to get formal training for my new career.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. (0.5 point)

Question 33. The new electronic device was very complicated. We couldn’t operate it successfully.

A. The new electronic device was so complicated that we couldn’t operate it successfully.

B. The new electronic device was very complicated; however, we couldn’t operate it successfully.

C. Although the new electronic device was very complicated, we couldn’t operate it successfully.

D. The new electronic device was such complicated that we couldn’t operate it successfully.

Question 34. You must study hard. Otherwise, you will fail the entrance exam.

A. Unless you study hard, you will fail the entrance exam.

B. If you study hard, you will fail the entrance exam.

C. If you don’t study hard, you won’t fail the entrance exam.

D. Unless you study hard, you won’t fail the entrance exam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1.5 points)

The world is losing its wildlife at an alarming speed. In the last 40 years, half of all wild animals have disappeared. Scientists predict that by 2050, almost 90% of animals will lose parts of their natural homes, such as forests. We must make big changes soon to protect these species before it is too late.

One company, led by Gautam Shah, is using technology to help. They create mobile apps that connect people with nature in creative ways. For example, one app uses Augmented Reality (AR) so you can take a “selfie” with a rhino or a bear. The animal looks real in your photo, even though it isn’t actually there!

Another app challenges you to stay active by racing against real animals. It tracks the movement of snow leopards and tigers, and you must try to run further than they do. You can also play a game where you act as a scientist in South-East Asia. In this game, you study real photos and learn how experts work to save wildlife.

Gautam Shah believes that young people are the key to saving the planet. Today, over 2.1 billion people play games on their phones. If all these players become interested in the environment through these fun apps, they can work together to change the world and save our animals.

(Adapted from Gateway to the World A2 exam practice reading)

Question 35. According to scientists, how much of the animal population may lose parts of their natural habitats by 2050?

A. Almost 40%     B. Over 2.1 billion     C. Exactly half   D. Nearly 90%

Question 36. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a consequence of wildlife loss?

A. Disappearance of forests   B. Animals disappearing

C. Loss of natural homes      D. Changes in weather patterns

Question 37. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. the mobile app B. the photo      C. the animal     D. the company

Question 38. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 3?

A. You have to be a scientist to play the games on the mobile app.

B. Users can race against real tigers in a physical stadium.

C. Players can learn about the work of experts by studying real photos.

D. The app only tracks the movement of animals in South-East Asia.

Question 39. Which paragraph mentions a specific number of people using mobile devices?

A. Paragraph 2    B. Paragraph 1    C. Paragraph 3    D. Paragraph 4

Question 40. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. How to become a scientist in South-East Asia.

B. The history of different wild animals.

C. How mobile apps help protect wildlife.

D. Why young people like taking selfies.

———- THE END ———-