ĐỀ THI THỬ HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN 1 TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN, NAM ĐỊNH NĂM HỌC 2022 – 2023 Môn TIẾNG ANH – Lớp 11 THPT

     Bạn đang chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 11? Bạn đang tìm kiếm tài liệu ôn thi để củng cố kiến thức? Hãy đến với tài liệu diệu kỳ, nơi cung cấp cho bạn những tài liệu ôn luyện đội tuyển học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 11 chất lượng nhất.

     Chúng tôi giới thiệu đến bạn Đề thi thử HSGTA 11 Tiếng Anh with key lần 1 trường THPT Nguyễn Khuyến, Nam Định năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án mới nhất, được cập nhật sắp tới. Đây là đề thi chính thức được cấp trường tổ chức trong chuyên đề bồi dưỡng học sinh giỏi Anh 11.

     Đề thi này sẽ giúp bạn làm quen với định dạng, cấu trúc, cũng như các dạng bài thi thường gặp trong kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 11. Đề thi thử HSGTA 11 Tiếng Anh lần 1 trường THPT Nguyễn Khuyến, Nam Định năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án bao gồm các phần: nghe, đọc, và viết. 

     Tài liệu ôn thi này cung cấp cho bạn các bài tập luyện tập kỹ năng nghe, đọc hiểu và viết Tiếng Anh, giúp bạn rèn luyện khả năng làm bài thi một cách nhanh chóng và hiệu quả. Bên cạnh đó, tài liệu ôn thi này còn đi kèm với file nghe đang được cập nhật để giúp bạn luyện tập kỹ năng nghe Tiếng Anh một cách tốt nhất.

     Tất cả các đề thi trên Tài liệu diệu kỳ đều có đầy đủ đáp án và được biên soạn bởi đội ngũ giáo viên có kinh nghiệm, giúp bạn tự tin hơn khi đối mặt với kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 11. Tải xuống Đề thi thử HSGTA 11 Tiếng Anh lần 1 trường THPT Nguyễn Khuyến, Nam Định năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án để ôn luyện ngay

Tải xuống: ĐỀ THI THỬ HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN 1 TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN, NAM ĐỊNH NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 Môn TIẾNG ANH - Lớp 11 THPT
Tải xuống: ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC

Trích dẫn nội dung "Đề thi thử HSGTA 11 Tiếng Anh lần 1 trường THPT Nguyễn Khuyến, Nam Định năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án":

SỞ GIÁO DỤC – ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỊNH TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN 

ĐỀ THI THỬ HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN 1 NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 

Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp: 11 THPT Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút 

(Đề thi gồm: 08 trang) 

HỌ VÀ TÊN THÍ SINH: ………………………………………………..……  SỐ BÁO DANH: ……………………………………  





Chữ ký giám thị: 

SỐ PHÁCH:




Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài ngay vào đề thi này 


Điểm 



Chữ ký giám khảo: 

SỐ PHÁCH:




Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này 

PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points) 

Hướng dẫn làm phần thi nghe hiểu: 

- Bài nghe gồm 20 câu, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần. 

- Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc, hướng dẫn chi tiết đã có trong bài nghe. 

SECTION 1:  

Questions 1 - 10.  

Complete the notes below. Write no more than TWO WORDS and/ or A NUMBER Cycling holiday in Australia 

 Example Answer 

Most suitable holiday lasts (0) ………… 10 …..…… 

Holiday begins on (1) ………………………  

No more than (2) ……………………… people in cycling group Each day, group cycles (3) ……………………… on average Some of the hotels have a (4) ………………………  

Holiday costs (5) ……………………… per person without flights All food included except (6) ……………………… 

Essential to bring a (7) ……………………… 

Discount possible on equipment at www (8) ……………………… com Possible that the (9) ……………………… may change Guided tour of a (10) ……………………… is arranged 

SECTION 2:  

Questions 11 - 14. Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 

11. The Market is now situated ……. 

A. under a car park B. beside the cathedral C. near the river 12. On only one day a week, the market sells ……. 

A. antique furniture B. local produce C. hand-made items  1

13. The area is well-known for ……. 

A. ice cream B. a cake C. a fish dish  14. What change has taken place in the harbour area ……. 

A. Fish can now be bought from the fishermen  

B. The restaurants have moved to a different part 

C. There are fewer restaurants than there used to be  

Questions 15 - 20. Which advantage is mentioned for each of the following restaurants? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 15-20. 

15. Merrivales 

…D…… 

16. The Lobster Pot 

… H …… 

17. Elliots 

…F…… 

18. The Cabin 

… G …… 

19. The Olive Tree 

……C… 

20. The Old School Restaurant 

Advantages 

A. The decoration 

B. Easy parking 

C. Entertainment 

D. Excellent service 

E. Good value 

F. Good views 

G. Quiet location 

H. Wide menue




PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (6.0 points) 

I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in each of the following questions.  

Question 1: A. laughs B. ploughs C. mouths D. clothes Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. forc

II. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.  

Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide Question 4: A. argument B. conference C. condition D. secretary 

III. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 5: The number of students in school A increased significantly in the last 5 years. Likewise, that  in school B experienced a substantial rise.  

A. Adversely B. Conversely C. Comparably D. Similarly Question 6: The enemy can attack us at any minute, so stay sharp or they will take us by surprise! A. intense B. alert C. rapid D. precise 

IV. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 7: The Beatles were a phenomenon – nobody had heard anything like them before. A. success B. wonder C. disastrous D. failure Question 8: Jenny really broke the mould with her latest education initiative and several schools have  since adopted her method. 

A. did something innovative B. acted differently 

C. made rapid progress D. did in a normal way 

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V. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.  

Question 9: March: “Excuse me, where could I find the Rich Tea Biscuits?”  

 - The store attendant: “______”  

A. Sorry, it’s in stock at the moment. B. How would you like to pay?  C. It’s been discontinued, I’m afraid. D. You can manage yourself, thank you!  Question 10: Ron: “I haven’t seen you for ages. How are you doing?”  

 - Neville: “______”  

A. Well, I’m working as an engineer now. B. Never better! How are you?  C. A little bit off the weather. D. Every cloud has a silver lining.  

VI. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 11: The audience watching (A)the rock concert obviously do not satisfy (B) with (C) the way the  band played (D). 

Question 12: Exploration of the Solar System is continuing (A), and at the present (B) rate of progress all  the planets will have been contacted within (C) the near (D) 50 years.  

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.  

Question 13: It’s believed that _________ car is one of the main factors causing a lot of damage to our  environment.  

A. a B. the C. an D. 0 Question 14: The school is proud of its wide range of _________ activities  

A. antisocial B. tertiary C. hyperactive D. extracurricular  Question 15: Everyone has to hand in their assignments by noon but in the case of Sam, I'll_________an  exception.  

A. set B. take C. have D. make  Question 16: A lot of people have ignored the warning of air pollution _________ health problems. A. seriously causing B. is seriously causing C. seriously caused D. is seriously caused Question 17: It turned out that we_________rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours. A. hadn't B. should have C. needn't have D. mustn't  Question 18. If you are _________, you are capable of doing or deciding by yourself, rather than depending on other people for help. 

A. well-informed B. determined C. self-reliant D. reliable Question 19: _________when we moved in, not September.  

A. It wasn't June B. Wasn't June C. It was June D. When it was June Question 20: He received a pat on the _________ from his boss from the new project that he had done. A. back B. hand C. hair D. mind 

VIII. Fill in the blank with ONLY ONE WORD.  

Question 21: Because farmers had been informed about the bad effects of chemical fertilisers, they started using them on their farms. 

Question 22. She studied for a in engineering in a famous university.  Question 23: Children should be taught to be for all of their behaviours and actions.  Question 24. Vietnam always desires to work with its partners on the basis of the of respect for independence, equality and mutual benefit. 

Question 25: Sometimes, in order to get things done, we have to the initiative. 

 IX. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences.   3

Question 26. Studies have shown that our of antibacterial ingredients has helped to  create new resistant bacteria. (USE

Question 27. We will need new technologies to generate energy and use it in clean and safe ways, only from fully sources. (NEW

Question 28. Many patients think . They are never in the fear of death (OPTIMIST) Question 29: Most doctors are after they learn general medicine. (SPECIALQuestion 30: This matter is very . Don’t discuss it outside the office. (CONFIDENCE)  

PART C - READING (5.0 points) 

I. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks. (2.0 points) 

All relationships go through difficult times. In the past, when married couples had problems they usually didn’t (1) _________. They had to either (2) _________ with each other or continue to live together in an unhappy relationship. Getting divorced wasn’t an option for most people due to economic and social reasons. Some people believe that this wasn’t such a bad thing. They say that relationships require hard work and (3) _________. “If a relationship is going to last a lifetime, you have to keep working at it,” says Doreen, who is celebrating her fiftieth wedding anniversary this year. “It isn’t all roses and romance. (4) _________perfect all of the time. These days young people give up when there’s the (5)_________argument.” Experts agree that communication is key. The most important thing is to (6) _________ talking. How many times have you heard yourself say to (7) _________, “If only you’d listen!” or “I wish you (8)_________do that!” The truth is, the (9) _________ couples talk, the better their relationship (10) _________ be. 

Question 1: A. grow up B. split up C. chat up D. make up Question 2: A. get on B. go on C. get back D. fall out Question 3: A. agreement B. argument C. achivement D. commitment Question 4: A. no one B. someone C. anyone D. everyone Question 5: A. smallest B. slightest C. most violent D. most Question 6: A. raise B. control C. stop D. keep Question 7: A. anybody B. everyone C. somebody D. nobody Question 8: A. wouldn’t B. couldn’t C. shouldn’t D. didn’t  Question 9: A. more B. fewer C. less D. least Question 10: A. would B. could C. will D. can 

II. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (2.0 points) 

The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time that food contained constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided different amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate dietary protein associated with certain foods.  

The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called "the vitamin period." Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might be responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this education was on the recognition of deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately turned from ignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.  

In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began to fall into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and were  4

quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue of supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less effective when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.  

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?  

A. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study  

B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present  

C. The effects of vitamins on the human body  

D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century  

Question 2: It can bo Inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during  the first era In the history of nutrition?  

A. Certain foods wore found to be harmful to good health.  

B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.  

C. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.  

D. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet. thichtienganh.com 

Question 3: The word "tempting" is closest in meaning to.  

A. realistic B. necessary C. correct D.attractive  Question 4: it can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in  order to  

A. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease  B. support the creation of artificial vitamins  

C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients  

D. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition  

Question 5: The word "Reckless" is closest in meaning to?  

A. recorded B. irresponsible C. informative D. urgent  Question 6: The word "them" refers to  

A. effects B. vitamins C. claims D. therapies  Question 7: Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's?  

A. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts  

B. Nutritional research was of poor quality  

C. The public lost interest in vitamins  

D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.  

Question 8: The phrase "concomitant with" is closest in meaning to  

A. in dispute with B. prior to C. in regard to D. in conjunction with  Question 9: The word "skyrocketing" is closest in meaning to  

A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly C. surprising D. acceptable  Question 10: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses  

A. Why nutrition education lost its appeal B. Problems associated with under - nutrition.  C. The fourth era of nutrition history D. How drug companies became successful 

III. Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph below. There is ONE EXTRA  heading that you DO NOT need to use. Write the correct letter (A- G) next to each paragraph (2-6) (1.0 point). 


Example: Paragraph 1. B 

Paragraph 2. 

Paragraph 3.  

Paragraph 4. 

Paragraph 5. 

Paragraph 6. 

List of Headings 

A The process of physical development B Dealing with food  

C Benificial activities 

D Form of exertion 

E Expecting a baby 

F Energy as a key to life




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G Reserves of fat



ENERGY REQUIREMENTS 

As human being, we depend on energy in many ways. 

1. B ……………………………………… 

Eating requires energy for the ingestion and digestion of what we put in our mouths, and for the absorption, transport, interconverstion, oxidation and deposition of nutrients. These metabolic processes increase heat production and oxygen consumption, and are known by term such as dietary-induced thermogenesis, specific dynamic action of food and thermic effect of feeding. The metabolic response to nutrition increases total energy expenditure by about 10 per cent of the basal metabolic rate (BMR) over a 24-hour period in individual eating a mixed diet. 

2. ………………………………………… 

This is the most variable and, after BMR, the second largest component of daily energy expenditure. Humans perform obligatory and discretionary physical activities. Obligatory activities can seldom be avoided within a given setting, and they are imposed on the individual by economic, cultural and societal demands. The term “obligatory” is more comprehensive than the term “occupational” that was used in the 1985 report (WHO, 1985) because, in addition to occupational work, obligatory activities include daily activities such as going to school, tending to the home and family and other demands made on children and adults by their economic, social and cultural environment. 

3. ………………………………………… 

Discretionary activities, although not socially or economically essential, are important for health, well being and a good quality of life in general. They include the regular practice of physical activity for fitness and health; the performance of optional household tasks that may contribute to family comfort and well being; and the engagement in individually and socially desirable activities for personal enjoyment, social interaction and community development. 

4. ………………………………………… 

The energy cost of growth has two components: 1) the energy needed to synthesize growing tissues; and 2) the energy deposited in those tissues. The energy cost of growth is about 35 per cent of total energy requirement during the first three months of age, falls rapidly to about 5 per cent at 12 months and about 3 per cent in the second year, remains at 1 to 2 per cent until mid-adolescence, and is negligible in the late teens. 

5. ………………………………………… 

During pregnancy, extra energy is needed for the growth of the foetus, placenta and various maternal tissues, such as in the uterus, breasts and fat stores, as well as for changes in maternal metabolism and the increase in maternal effort at rest and during physical activity. 

6. ………………………………………… 

The energy cost of lactation has two components: 1) the energy content of this food for the baby; and 2) the energy required in its production. Well-nourished lactating women can derive part of this additional requirement from body fat stores accumulated during pregnancy.  

PART D - WRITING (5.0 points) 

I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the first sentence, using the cues as the beginning of each sentence. (1.6 points) 

1. You feel tired now because you didn't sleep very well last night. 

Had............................................... .................................................. .............. 

2. Their wedding will be held in a lovely church. 

The church............................................ .................................................. ...... 

3. They couldn't find the manager anywhere . 

The manager was............................................... .................................................. ......... 4. His memory gradually failed as he grew old. 

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The older ............................................... .................................................. .............. 5. The teacher advised him to study hard when the exam came nearer. 

The teacher suggested ............................................... .............................................  6. Sue is too slow to understand what you might say. 

So slow ............................................... .................................................. ................. 7. We’ve decided to leave early tomorrow morning.  

We are ............................................... .................................................. ................... 8. The Prime Minister didn’t intend to resign office. 

The Prime Minister had ............................................... ............................................. 

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between four and six words, including the word given. (1.4 points) 

1. They opened the window because they didn’t want the smoke to go in the kitchen. (SO THAT) → They opened the window ……………………………..………… go in the kitchen. 2. Jonah had obviously made an effort to put on smart clothes for the occasion. (UP) → Jonah had obviously made an effort ……………………………..………… for the occasion 3. We have sold many cars this month. (DEMAND) 

→ There has been ……………………………..………… this month. 

4. Come on Thursday or Friday. It’s all the same to me. (DIFFERENCE) 

→ Come on Thursday or Friday. ……………………………..………… to me 

5. I’d made up my mind, but at the last minute I lost my confidence. (FEET) 

→ I’d made up my mind, but at the last minute ……………………………..…………. 6. I find Harold’s behaviour quite incomprehensible. (LOSS) 

→ I am ……………………………..………… Harold’s behaviour. 

7. There is no point in your phoning Caroline – she’s away. (TIME) 

→ It is ……………………………..………… Caroline – she’s away. 

III. Write an essay. (2.0 points) 

Nowadays, many students have part time jobs while they are at colleges, universities or even high  schools. Do you think this is a good idea?  

You should write an essay from 200 to 220 words, using specific reasons and details to support your  opinion. 


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