Kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp huyện/cụm luôn là một cột mốc quan trọng để các em học sinh cọ xát, đánh giá và nâng cao năng lực ngoại ngữ của mình. Vừa qua, Kỳ thi HSG Tiếng Anh 8 cụm 1 huyện Nghi Lộc, tỉnh Nghệ An năm học 2024-2025 đã chính thức diễn ra với chất lượng đề thi được đánh giá cao, bám sát cấu trúc thi học sinh giỏi hiện hành.
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Bảng tóm tắt cấu trúc
| Phần | Nội dung | Điểm |
|---|---|---|
| Listening | 3 dạng: trắc nghiệm (5 câu), điền từ đoạn văn (10 câu), điền thông tin hội thoại (5 câu) | 40 |
| Lexico-Grammar | Trắc nghiệm ngữ pháp – từ vựng, collocations, idioms + bài sửa lỗi đoạn văn | 20 |
| Reading | 4 dạng: cloze test (MCQ), điền từ, đọc hiểu học thuật, matching heading + T/F/NG + trả lời ngắn | 50 |
| Writing | Viết lại câu (transformations), viết email (~100–120 từ), viết luận (~150–180 từ) | 50 |
Link Tải Trọn Bộ Đề Thi & Đáp Án (File Word)
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Đề thi đã sẵn sàng, đáp án đầy đủ, transcript cũng đã được chuẩn bị. Phần còn lại phụ thuộc vào sự nỗ lực và tinh thần ôn luyện của bạn. Tài liệu diệu kỳ mong rằng Đề HSG Anh 9 Thanh Hóa 2025–2026 không chỉ là tài liệu luyện thi hữu ích, mà còn tiếp thêm hứng thú cho quá trình học tập mỗi ngày.
Đáp án
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 CỤM 1
NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 – LẦN 2
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
SECTION A – LISTENING (40 points)
Part 1 (10 points)
Questions from 1 to 5. Listen to the recording and choose the best answer in A, B or C.
Your answers:
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A
Part 2 (20 points)
Questions from 6 to 15. Listen to the article about Thomas Edison and write in each numbered blank with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
Your answers:
6. 1847 7. stupid 8. young man 9. government 10. recording
11. very expensive 12. no longer 13. 1931 14. success 15. good ideas
Part 3 (10 points)
You will hear a woman talking to an assistant about buying a video film for her daughter. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. You will hear the conversation twice.
Your answers:
16. coffee 17. 12 18. 5.99 19. Shirley 20. (a) bank
SECTION B – LEXICO – GRAMMAR (20 points)
Part 1 (12 points)
Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. Write it in “Your answers” part.
Your answers:
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. D
Part 2 (8 points)
There are 8 mistakes in the following passage. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Your answers:
Line 1: violence → violent
Line 2: show → shows
Line 3: Turn → Turning
Line 4: was → were
Line 6: In → In the
Line 7: which → who
Line 9: different → difference
Line 11: good → well
SECTION C – READING (50 points)
Part 1 (10 points)
Read the passage below and decide which answer best fits each gap.
Your answers:
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C
2. A 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. B
Part 2 (10 points)
Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank.
Your answers:
1. because 2. interested 3. another 4. keep 5. be
2. also 7. as 8. creates 9. do / perform 10. interfere
Part 3 (20 points)
Read a passage and choose the best answer.
Your answers:
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. A
2. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. D
Part 4 (10 points)
Read the passage and do the tasks that follow.
Your answers:
1. vi 2. iii 3. ii 4. i 5. viii
2. rock concert, football
3. private security firms
4. Not given
5. True
6. True
SECTION D – WRITING (50 points)
Part 1 (10 points)
Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.
1. The cake was so hard that I couldn’t eat it
2. I don’t mind looking after the baby for you
3. He is looking forward to meeting the old friends after 25 years
4. Tom apologized to his boss for handing in his report so late
5. Although Jim had a good salary, he was unhappy in his job
Part 2 (20 points)
Imagine you are Mary. Your English friend, Peter, is coming to your town for the day and wants to meet you. Write an email (about 100–120 words) to Peter. In your email, you should explain where you can meet, suggest what you can do together, and advise Peter what to bring.
The mark given to part 2 is based on the following criteria:
Length: about 100–120 words (1 point)
Ideas: opening, body of the letter, closing (10 points)
Organization and style: informal (2 points)
Vocabulary and grammar (7 points)
Part 3 (20 points)
The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria:
Length: about 120–150 words (2 points)
Organization and style: ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to writing stories or essays (3 points)
Ideas (15 points)
Grammar and vocabulary: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students (10 points)
ĐỀ KIỂM ĐỊNH CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 CỤM 1
NĂM HỌC 2024-2025- LẦN 2
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Điểm bài thi Họ tên, chữ kí giám khảo Số phách
Điểm bằng số: …………………… Giám khảo 1: ………………………..
Điểm bằng chữ: ………………….. Giám khảo 2: ………………………..
SECTION A – LISTENING ( 40 points)
Part 1. (10 points). Questions from 1 to 5. Listen to the recording and choose the best answer in A, B or C.
1. What would be the best title for this lecture?
A. Important Keys to Recycling Paper
B. Technological Advances Improve Recycling
C. Steps to Improving Recycling
2. According to the article, paper materials that are difficult to recycle include:
A. copy paper
B. document shred
C. food wrappers
3. In some cases, recycling could be hazardous to the environment if special precautions are not taken because:
A. industrial emissions are sometimes created in the process.
B. chemical waste is sometimes produced as a result.
C. a great deal of energy is expended to create new products.
4. According to the lecture, the demand for recyclable materials in the manufacturing of new products is sometimes sluggish because
A. some governments are unwilling to support expensive recycling methods.
B. there is a lack of advanced technology to process the materials.
C. businesses do not invest enough money into research.
5. Which is NOT one of the main keys to recycling as mentioned in the lecture?
A. government regulation of waste
B. better technology
C. more demand for recycled materials
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2. (20 points). Questions from 6 to 15. Listen to the article about Thomas Edison and write in each numbered blank with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
Thomas Edison was one of the most famous inventors of all time. He was born in a small town in the United States during the year (6) _____________. When he was a young boy, Thomas found school to be very boring. A teacher once told Thomas’s mother that he believed the young boy was rather (7) _____________. However, Edison’s mother knew better. She understood that her son was very intelligent. She then took him away from school and began to teach him herself.
As a (8) _____________, Thomas Edison became very interested in inventing new machines. One of his first inventions was a small electrical machine that could be used for counting votes. However, the (9) _____________ was not interested in his invention. But Edison was not discouraged. He continued inventing, and his next invention was an electrical machine that could be used for (10) _____________ the prices of stocks. This invention was very popular and successful.
Probably the most famous invention of Edison’s is the electric light bulb. Before Edison, there had been some electric lights, but these were (11) _____________. In 1879, Edison invented a new kind of light bulb that could shine for a long time. Within a few years, Edison’s electric lights were used on the streets of cities in many countries. Soon after, people began using electric lights in their homes. Another invention of Edison’s is (12) _____________ used today. That invention was called the phonograph. It was a machine that could be used to record sounds, such as music and conversation.
Edison is most famous for his inventions, such as the light bulb and the phonograph. Edison lived to an old age, and he died in (13) _____________. Although Edison was an extremely creative man, he believed that his (14) _____________ was due to many hours of hard work. He once said that “Genius is one per cent inspiration, and ninety-nine percent perspiration.” In other words, a successful person should have (15) _____________, but the most important thing is to work very hard.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15
Part 3. (10 points).You will hear a woman talking an assistant about buying a video film for her daughter. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. You will hear the conversation twice.
V I D E O
Actor in film: Brad Smith
Name of film: (16) Blue _______________________
For people: (17) ______________________years old or more.
Cost: (18) £ ___________________________
Video shop in: (19) ___________________________Street
Opposite: (20) ___________________________
Your answer:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
SECTION B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (20 points)
Part 1. (12 points). Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. Write it in ‘Your answers’ part.
1. We took ________ of the fine weather and spent the day on the beach.
A. chance B. advantage C. occasion D. effect
2. Sorry, but that book is _________. We’ll get some copies from the publisher next Monday.
A. out of stock B. out of print C. out of order D. off shelf
3.The Youth Union in our school has decided to launch a/an _______ to raise funds for local charities.
A. activity B. announcement C. campaign D. decision
4. While my father was watching TV, the light _________ out.
A. was going B. went C. go D. to go
5. I suggest that we ___________ some money for poor children.
A. to raise B. raising C. raised D. should raise
6. I bought my son a(n) ______________ toy car when I went abroad on a business trip.
A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper
C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper
7. _________ in the Middle East, oil became known as black gold because of the large profit it brought.
A. Discovered B. That when discovered C. Discovering D. Which was discovered
8. “Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. as much as twice B. twice more than C. twice as much as D. twice as
9. . It is recommended that he ___________ this course.
A. took B. take C. takes D. taking
10. Helen: “I love your gardens. The plants are well taken care of!”
Ingrid: “Thanks. Yes, I suppose I’ve always __________.”
A. let nature take its course B. had green fingers
C. made it down on my luck D. drawn the short straw
11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
You have got a high score in the final exam. You should put yourself on the back.
A. criticize yourself B. wear a backpack
C. praise yourself D. check up your back
12. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following question.
I’ll back up your ideas if they don’t believe you.
A. rebel B. admire C. protect D. support
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Part 2. (8 points). There are 8 mistakes in the following passage. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. Write it in ‘Your answers’ part.
line 1
line 2
line 3
line 4
line 5
line 6
line 7
line 8
line 9
line10
line 11
line12
line13
We tend to think of poverty as the main cause of violence crime. However, research from both sides of the Atlantic show that fathers may be the most important factor in preventing children from turn to crime. In the United States, children from better-off family was compared with ones from families with lower incomes. Children from both groups that lived with their fathers committed the same number of crimes. In United Kingdom, a study was carried out comparing a group of boys which had never been accused of any crimes such as assault and stealing vehicles. All the boys had difficulty at school and came from large families that didn’t earn a lot of money. The biggest different between the groups was that fifty-five percent of the “good boys” lived with their fathers, while only four percent of the “bad boys” did. Eighty percent of the good – behaved boys said they felt close to their fathers even if they didn’t live in the same house. It seems that having a father who takes an interest in his children encourages youngsters not to break the law.
Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections Line Mistakes Corrections
1. 5.
2. 6.
3. 7.
4. 8.
SECTION C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. (10 points). Read the passage below and decide which answer (from A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in ‘Your answers’ part.
NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE
British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (1)___________ planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (2) ___________ years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (3) ___________, NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (4) ___________ of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (5) ___________around 2020, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (6) ___________ processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (7) ___________, but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (8)___________ galaxy, even though these planets lie (9) ___________our reach for the moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (10) ___________ Darwin within three years.
1. A. another B. other C. others D. the other
2. A. light B. lighten C. lightening D. lighting
3. A. following B. after C. next D. later
4. A. price B. schedule C. charge D. budget
5. A. driven B. fetched C. launched D. taken
6. A. central B. centre C. middle D. heart
7. A. invents B. searches C. discovers D. looks
8. A. alone B. same C. one D. own
9. A. out B. toward C. beyond D. over
10. A. of B. on C. about D. with
Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2. (10 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank. Write your answers in ‘Your answers’ part.
Travelling is a great thing to do. It helps us learn about different people and different places. Some people travel (1) __________ they want to see nature. Others travel because they want to make friends and try great food. Of course, a lot of tourists are (2) _________ in traditional culture. Tourism can be very good for traditional cultures. This is because when people travel to (3) __________ country, they often want to learn more about that country’s traditions, such as music, food, and history. Therefore, the local people in that country will (4) __________ their traditional culture alive. They will wear traditional clothing, and sell traditional food. They will also have shown for tourists. These shows can (5) __________ dances, concerts, plays, or something else. Tourism (6) __________.helps people respect each other. If you understand another culture well, you will probably respect that culture much more. You will probably want to protect that culture (7) __________well. However, tourism is not always good for traditional culture. Many people say that tourism (8) __________ “fake traditional culture”. This means that the local people wear traditional costumes, and (9) __________traditional dances only for tourists, but that is not their real lifestyle. Their real lifestyles are similar to the tourists’ lifestyle. They are just pretending because they want to make money. Another problem is that tourists can (10) __________.with the local people’s lives. For example, tourists come to watch local people praying in temples. While the local people pray, tourists take photographs and make noise
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. (20 points). Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled – a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature’s output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution
B. What constitutes an air pollutant
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere
2. The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
3. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _______.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
4. The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_______
A. the various chemical reactions B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
5. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed
6. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions _______.
A. can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
7. The word “localized” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
8. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if _______.
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
9. The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable
10. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4. (10 points). Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
High-tech crime-fighting tools
Example: Paragraph A: ix . A natural progression
Crime-fighting technology is getting more sophisticated and rightly so. The police need to be equipped for the 21st century. In Britain we’ve already got the world’s biggest DNA database. By next year the state will have access to the genetic data of 4.25m people: one British-based person in 14. Hundreds of thousands of those on the database will never have been charged with a crime.
Paragraph B
Britain is also reported to have more than 4 million CCTV (closed circuit television) cameras. There is a continuing debate about the effectiveness of CCTV. Some evidence suggests that it is helpful in reducing shoplifting and car crime. It has also been used to successfully identify terrorists and murderers. However, many claim that better lighting is just as effective to prevent crime and that cameras could displace crime. An internal police report said that only one crime was solved for every 1,000 cameras in London in 2007. In short, there is conflicting evidence about the effectiveness of cameras, so it is likely that the debate will continue.
Paragraph C
Professor Mike Press, who has spent the past decade studying how design can contribute to crime reduction, said that, in order for CCTV to have any effect, it must be used in a targeted way. Most schemes that simply record city centres continually — often not being watched – do not produce results. CCTV can also have the opposite effect of that intended, by giving citizens a false sense of security and encouraging them to be careless with property and personal safety. Professor Press said: ‘All the evidence suggests that CCTV alone makes no positive impact on crime reduction and prevention at all. The weight of evidence would suggest the investment is more or less a waste of money unless you have lots of other things in place.’
Paragraph D
But in reality, this is not what is happening. Instead, police are considering using more technology. Police forces have recently begun experimenting with cameras in their helmets. The footage will be stored on police computers, along with the footage from thousands of CCTV cameras and millions of pictures from number-plate recognition cameras used increasingly to check up on motorists.
Paragraph E
And now another type of technology is being introduced. It’s called the Microdrone and it’s a toy-sized remote-control craft that hovers above streets or crowds to film what’s going on beneath. The Microdrone has already been used to monitor rock festivals. The drones are small enough to be unnoticed by people on the ground when they are flying at 350ft. They contain high-resolution video surveillance equipment and an infrared night vision capability, so even in darkness they give their operators a bird’s-eye view of locations while remaining virtually undetectable.
Paragraph F
The worrying thing is, who will get access to this technology? Merseyside police are already employing two of the devices as part of a pilot scheme to watch football crowds and city parks looking for antisocial behaviour. It is not just about crime detection: West Midlands fire brigade is about to lease a drone, for example, to get a better view of fire and flood scenes and aid rescue attempts; the Environment Agency is considering their use for monitoring of illegal fly tipping and oil spills. The company that makes the drone says it has no plans to license the equipment to individuals or private companies, which hopefully will prevent private security firms from getting their hands on them. But what about local authorities? In theory, this technology could be used against motorists. And where will the surveillance society end? Already there are plans to introduce ‘smart water’ containing a unique DNA code identifier that when sprayed on a suspect will cling to their clothes and skin and allow officers to identify them later. As long as high-tech tools are being used in the fight against crime and terrorism, fine. But if it’s another weapon to be used to invade our privacy then we don’t want it.
Glossary:
Drone: a remote – control pilotless aircraft
350ft: about 107 meters
Bird’s eye view: a view from above
Fly-tipping: illegally dumping waste (British English)
The reading passage above has six paragraphs A-F. From the list of headings below, choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph. Write the appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 1-5. Paragraph A has been done for you.
i
ii
iii
iv
v
vi
vii
viii
ix
x The Spy in the sky
The spread of technology
The limitations of cameras
The cost of cameras
Robots solving serious crimes
Lack of conclusive evidence
Cars and cameras
Advantages and disadvantages
A natural progression (Example given – Para A)
A feeling of safety
Example Paragraph A ____ix____
1. Paragraph B __________
2. Paragraph C __________
3. Paragraph D __________
4. Paragraph E __________
5. Paragraph F __________
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
6) Give examples of 2 events where technology is used to watch crowds.
______________________________________________
7) According to the passage, who do we not want to use the Microdrone?
______________________________________________
Read the passage again and write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the writer
FALSE if the statement does not agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage
8) The British authorities use too much technology to monitor their citizens.
9) Microdrone is currently not used to check drivers.
10) Technology should not be used to check on people’s private affairs.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6 7
8. 9. 10.
SECTION D. WRITING (50 points)
Part 1. (10 points) Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. Using the given word
1. It was such a hard cake that I couldn’t eat it.
=> The cake was so …………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I’m quite happy to look after the baby for you.
=> I don’t mind ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. He is excited about meeting the old friends after 25 years.
=> He is looking ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. “I’m sorry for handing in my report so late.” Tom said to his boss.
=> Tom apologized to ………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. In spite of having a good salary, Jim was unhappy in his job.
=> Although Jim………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 2. ( 20 points) Imagine you are Mary. Your English friend, Peter, is coming to your town for the day, and wants to meet you. Write an email (about 100-120 words) to Peter. In your email, you should:
• Explain where you can meet
• Suggest what you can do together
• Advise Peter what to bring.
From: Mary.truelove@email.com
To: Peter.me@email.com
Part 3. (20 points)
Write an essay of 150-180 words on the topic “ disadvantages of using social networks for teenagers”
