Kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi trung học phổ thông (THPT) năm học 2024-2025 tại Hà Nội đã diễn ra vào ngày 8/1/2025, thu hút hơn 4.400 thí sinh tham gia ở 14 môn. Trong số đó, môn Tiếng Anh là một trong những môn được quan tâm hàng đầu, hãy tham khảo tại bài viết cấu trúc đề thi, hướng dẫn giải chi tiết và tải xuống file đề thi đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 12 Hà Nội 2024-2025 kèm hướng dẫn chấm (HDC) chính thức, thi vào ngày 08/01/2025.
Tóm tắt đề thi:
Dưới đây là tóm tắt cấu trúc đề thi Tiếng Anh của Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Hà Nội trong Kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi thành phố lớp 12 THPT, năm học 2024-2025:
– Listening (4 pts): Interview, Vitamin C speech, task organization.
– Language in Use (4 pts): Word forms, synonyms/antonyms, phrasal verbs, collocations.
– Reading (6 pts): Passage questions, matching tasks, fill-in answers.
– Writing (6 pts): Sentence arrangement, rephrasing, report completion.
Nội dung đề thi bao gồm toàn bộ chương trình lớp 10, 11 và một phần chương trình lớp 12 tính đến trước ngày thi theo Chương trình giáo dục phổ thông 2018.
Hướng dẫn giải phần Phrasal Verbs
31. For staying updated → keep up with: bắt kịp, cập nhật.
32. To resolve minor issues → iron out: giải quyết.
33. Starting a new career → embark on: bắt đầu một hành trình mới.
34. When the painkiller’s effect faded → wore off: hết dần.
35. To reduce/simplify the proposal → pare down: rút gọn, đơn giản hóa, giữ lại những thứ cần thiết.
Địa chỉ tra cứu điểm thi
Thí sinh và phụ huynh có thể tra cứu kết quả và điểm thi chi tiết bằng cách truy cập vào trang thông tin điện tử của Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Hà Nội tại:
Nhập số báo danh và mã xác nhận để xem kết quả thi.
Tải đề thi HSG THPT 12 Tiếng Anh Hà Nội
Tải xuống: Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 12 Hà Nội 2024-2025 + HDC
Đừng quên ghé thăm Tài liệu diệu kỳ để cập nhật thêm nhiều đề thi HSG THPT mới từ khắp các địa phương. Hy vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp các em ôn luyện thật tốt cho Kỳ thi Olympic Tiếng Anh đang đến gần.
>> Tham khảo thêm: Đề thi năm trước
Nội dung:
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HÀ NỘI
(Đề thi có 12 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THÀNH PHỐ
LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2024-2025
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 08 tháng 01 năm 2025
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào các trang của đề thi này, không được sử dụng từ điển và bất kỳ tài liệu nào. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
I. LISTENING (4.0 points)
– Bài nghe gồm 3 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
– Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có nhạc hiệu.
– Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: For questions 1-5, you will hear an interview with a man called Mike Jennings, who works as a tea taster, and a woman called Lara McDermott, who imports tea to the UK. Choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. What does Mike say about how he got into tea tasting?
A. He was bored of the job he was doing.
B. He was persuaded by a friend to try it.
C. He unexpectedly discovered an interest in it.
D. His degree subject prepared him for it.
2. According to Mike, which factor is the most important for a tea taster?
A. experience of laboratory work
B. basic scientific knowledge
C. a good general education
D. natural sensitivity
3. What reason does Mike give for tasters drinking their tea in a noisy way?
A. It is part of the traditional approach.
B. They are usually alone when tasting.
C. They drink from a spoon, not a cup.
D. It helps them with their evaluation.
4. What does Lara say about top quality tea?
A. It is made using the “cut, tear, curl” method.
B. Very little of it ends up in the UK.
C. Most of it is used to make teabags.
D. It tends to have a stronger flavour.
5. When asked about the relative popularity of tea and coffee, what do Mike and Lara disagree about?
A. the primary cause of the increase in coffee drinking
B. the rate at which coffee drinking has increased
C. the main reason tea remains more popular than coffee
D. the way coffee is perceived by the British public
Part 2: For questions 6-15, listen to a speech about Vitamin C. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS taken from the recording for each blank. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. The sales of Vitamin C are thriving as a __________ dollar industry.
7. Vitamin C is often marketed as supporting the __________, though the FDA does not back up this claim.
8. Linus Pauling, the scientist who popularized Vitamin C for colds, was awarded a Nobel Prize for his work in __________.
9. Newspapers named the sales of Vitamin C “The Great __________.”
10. There were criticisms at Pauling’s method, stating that his experience alone was not a __________.
11. Most people already get enough Vitamin C through their __________.
12. A review of 46 __________ found that regular Vitamin C intake does not prevent colds.
13. Although Vitamin C is found to be helpful to people taking strenuous physical exercise, __________ is unreasonable for the majority of people, and taking additional Vitamin C may even cause side effects in high doses.
14. The overuse of Vitamin C hasn’t been more __________ because it’s unlikely for one to hurt themselves with Vitamin C.
15. One way to alleviate cold symptoms is to focus on __________, such as drinking water or clear broth.
Part 3: For questions 16-20, listen to a speech about organizing tasks and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG) according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
16. David Allen believes that calendars can manage the majority of our commitments effectively.
17. According to David Allen, the brain is not an efficient system for managing tasks and commitments.
18. Writing down your commitments and tasks is sufficient to stay organized, according to David Allen.
19. David Allen’s system includes reviewing and implementing the tasks afterwards.
20. David Allen claims that using his system will guarantee you complete all your tasks on time.
II. LANGUAGE IN USE (4.0 points)
Part 1: For questions 21-25, write the correct form of each bracketed word in each sentence in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Over the years the appearance of La Nina has been more (21. PREDICT) __________ than that of El Nino; its patterns are not yet fully known and fewer of its effects have been recorded. But both patterns are considerably better understood than ever before, because the most recent El Nino will be the first to be remembered for more than just a litany of disasters. The 1997-98 El Nino marked a historic breakthrough in that for the first time scientists were able to predict (22. NORMAL) __________ flooding and droughts months in advance, allowing time for threatened populations to prepare. At the very least, preparation can save lives. Even in regions affected by poverty, constructing (23. DRAIN) __________ systems and stockpiling emergency supplies saved hundreds of lives. Forewarning brought (24. TIME) __________ international aid to such places as Papua, New Guinea, where highland populations were faced with after frost and drought combined to destroy (25. SUBSIST) __________ crops.
Part 2: Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
26. After the earthquake, the entrance hall was turned into a makeshift casualty ward.
A. permanent B. dilapidated C. provisional D. stable
27. When he found out that he had been rejected, he cut up rough.
A. lost his temper B. turned away C. became elated D. was reluctant
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
28. The captain ordered the soldiers to gather on the double, even though they were sleeping.
A. intensively B. increasingly C. hesitantly D. immediately
29. Immediate correction by a language teacher is often counter-productive, as students may become discouraged to speak at all.
A. isolated B. unproductive C. unfruitful D. effective
30. If you want a flat in the centre of the city, you have to pay through the nose for it.
A. a little B. too much C. unreasonably D. in instalments
Part 3: Fill in each of the blanks with the correct forms of the phrasal verbs given in the box below. There is ONE extra phrasal verb which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
embark on pare down call in keep up with wear off iron out
31. As technology evolves at such a rapid pace, it’s challenging for even the most experienced professionals to __________ the latest trends, software updates, and innovations in their field.
32.
– A: “Did Amanda ever complete the project?”
– B: “She’s almost finished. She just has a few minor problems left to __________.”
33. I would advise you to think very carefully before you __________ a completely new career.
34. When the effect of the painkiller __________, I felt pain, but it was mild.
35. The team was forced to __________ their ambitious proposal to meet the client’s tight budget and deadline.
Part 4: Combine the preposition(s) in the first column with the word(s) in the second column to make a collocation. Then use the collocation to fill in the appropriate gap in each sentence. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
under on off schedule tenterhooks all the odds
behind against par the beaten track
36. We couldn’t find our hotel for hours as it was __________.
37. It was a serious illness but he managed to fully recover __________.
38. Tom had too much to drink last night so he was a bit __________ this morning.
39. Our flight took off very late, so it landed a full 10 hours __________.
40. Alex has been __________ all week, waiting for the exam results.
III. READING (6.0 points)
Part 1: Read a passage and choose the answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Line
2
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50 Perhaps the first experiment ever conducted in the field of social psychology suggests that humans are often faster and stronger when they test their speed and strength in the company of other people, rather than alone.
That study, conducted at Indiana University in the late 1890s, was the brainchild of Norman Triplett, a cycling enthusiast and a sports aficionado. In dozens of experiments he pushed cyclists to ride as fast as they could on stationary bikes. Across his observations, Triplett noticed that the cyclists tended to ride faster when other cyclists rode nearby. One cyclist rode a mile in 2 minutes 49 seconds when alone, but managed to ride the same mile in 2 minutes 37 seconds in the company of four pacing cyclists; similarly he rode ten miles in 33 minutes 17 seconds while riding alone, but rode the same distance two minutes faster when riding with several pacers. Triplett acknowledged that his observations were far from rigorous, so he conducted an experiment to show that the effect persisted in a tightly controlled lab study.
Triplett recruited forty children, ages eight to thirteen, to complete his study in 1897. He measured how quickly the students could wind a fishing reel so that a small flag attached to the line traveled a distance of sixteen meters. The task was simple but novel, and none of the children had played with fishing rods before the experiment. They performed the task both alone and in the presence of other children, and Triplett noticed that they wound the reels faster in the presence of others. He concluded that an audience enables people to “liberate latent energy” not normally available when they perform alone.
Science doesn’t always tell simple stories, and other researchers challenged Triplett’s groundbreaking results well into the twentieth century. While some researchers replicated Triplett’s effect – now known as the social facilitation effect – others found the opposite effect, known as social inhibition. Joseph Pessin and Richard Husband asked participants in their study to learn a simple maze either blindfolded alone or blindfolded in the presence of other people. The blindfolded participants traced their fingers along the maze, and reversed each time they encountered one of ten dead ends. Instead of performing better in front of an audience, Pessin and Husband’s participants completed the maze more quickly when they were alone.
Inconsistencies like these persisted for years, until social psychologist Bob Zajonc proposed a solution: it all depends on the nature of the task. Audiences accentuate our instinctive responses and make it more difficult to override those responses in favor of more carefully considered alternatives. The children in Triplett’s experiment devoted little thought and attention to frantically winding the experimental fishing reel. In contrast, learning a maze is difficult, and it requires concentration. Pessin and Husband’s maze learners were probably distracted by the knowledge that they were being watched, and feared making a mistake in front of an audience.
Zajonc avoided experimenting with humans at first, choosing to observe the behavior of seventy-two cockroaches instead. With a small team of researchers, he devised two small athletic tasks that required the cockroaches to scuttle from a brightly lit area in a small box to a more appealing darker compartment. Some of the cockroaches completed a simpler task, in which they ran along a straight runway from the glare of the box to the darkened goal compartment. The remaining cockroaches completed a more difficult task, traversing a more complex maze before they could escape the light. Some of the cockroaches completed these tasks alone, but the researchers also built small audience box to force some of the athletic cockroaches to compete in front of an audience of roach spectators. Just as the researchers predicted, the cockroaches were much quicker to cover the straight runway when watched by an audience, reaching the darkened goal compartment an average of twenty-three seconds more quickly when they were performing before a crowd. But the cockroach athletes responded very differently to an audience when they were faced with the complex maze, reaching the goal seventy-six seconds more quickly when they were alone. The same audience that pushed the cockroaches to perform the simpler task more quickly also delayed them when the task was more complex.
Adapted from Hazel Markus, “The Effect of Mere Presence on Social Facilitation: An Unobtrusive Test.” 1978 by Academic Press, Inc.
Participants were observed performing an easy task (such as putting on their shoes) and a difficult task (such as putting on a back-tying lab coat).
41. The main purpose of the passage is to __________.
A. assert that the majority of people learn more effectively in a group than they do alone
B. present the contradictory results of two studies about learning that have each been considered groundbreaking
C. show how various experiments helped establish and refine the understanding of an audience’s effect on performance
D. chronicle the historical development of competing theories of social interaction
42. Which choice best represents the different meanings of simple in paragraph 3 and paragraph 4 of the passage?
A. easy, straightforward B. mindless, sincere
C. effortless, humble D. innocent, uncomplicated
43. Based on the passage, the design of Triplett’s fishing-reel experiment most likely ruled out which potential objection to his findings?
A. Improvements in the subjects’ performance after being asked to perform the task in front of an audience may reflect the subjects’ increasing competence at the task.
B. Differences between the subjects’ performance with an audience and their performance without an audience may be influenced by the subjects’ prior experience with the task.
C. Variations in performance among the subjects under either audience condition may be attributed to variations in the subjects’ ages and physical development.
D. Changes in the subjects’ performance after being put in front of an audience may result from some subjects observing and imitating the performance of more highly skilled subjects.
44. The word they in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. audiences B. dead ends C. participants D. researchers
45. As presented in the passage, Triplett would most likely agree that human beings __________.
A. are capable of ultimately mastering almost any task with which they are presented
B. exhibit a general tendency to avoid attempting difficult tasks when they are alone
C. have a strong desire to cooperate with other members of a group
D. possess abilities that they are not always able to exploit
46. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 5-6 (“In dozens … bikes”) B. Lines 19-20 (“He concluded … alone”)
C. Lines 21-22 (“Science … century”) D. Lines 22-24 (“While … inhibition”)
47. Based on the passage, which choice best describes what happened when the cockroaches in Zajonc’s experiment attempted to complete the complex maze in front of a cockroach audience?
A. The cockroaches became less hesitant in making choices than they had been without an audience.
B. The cockroaches completed the maze more slowly than they had without an audience.
C. The cockroaches in the maze appeared to communicate directly with the audience.
D. The cockroaches sought out the simpler task instead of the complex maze.
48. The author uses the terms “athletic cockroaches,” “roach spectators,” and “cockroach athletes” in the last paragraph of the passage most likely to __________.
A. call attention to the similarity of the two experiments described
B. stress the skepticism with which the author views the design of the experiment
C. create a casual tone that offsets the seriousness of the work being done
D. reinforce the idea that the observed cockroach behavior is comparable to that of humans
49. According to the graph, how long did it take participants, on average, to perform an easy task when they were alone?
A. More than 10 seconds but less than 15 seconds. B. More than 15 seconds but less than 20 seconds.
C. More than 20 seconds but less than 25 seconds. D. More than 25 seconds but less than 30 seconds.
50. Information about which of the following is presented in the graph but NOT discussed in the passage?
A. The time needed to complete tasks B. Difficult tasks
C. Tasks performed alone D. An inattentive audience
Part 2: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
Biofuels: Are they the fuels of the future?
Many plants can be turned into biofuels – but which ones should we use
and what methods are best?
A
On paper, biofuels seem the ideal replacement for oil, coal and gas, the fossil fuels we depend upon, and which drive global warming and disrupt weather patterns by releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. But the past decade has seen the biofuel industry face tough questions over whether it can truly claim to be ‘green’. One of the biggest criticisms of biofuel crops – at least those that produce the fuel ethanol – has been their impact on food markets and on traditional land use. Direct impacts – for example, cutting down forests to make way for a biofuel crop – are usually obvious, says Professor Bill Laurance, director of the Centre for Tropical Environmental and Sustainability Science at James Cook University. But, in his experience, indirect impacts can be no less devastating for the environment and are far more of a challenge to anticipate.
B
Let’s take Brazil, for example. When farmers in the US opted out of soy in favour of corn as a biofuel crop, soy prices soared, suddenly making it an attractive crop for Brazilian farmers. In turn, this increased demand for freshly deforested cropland in Brazil. Similar situations are occurring all over the world. But while deforestation can certainly lead to economic benefits for farmers, it also puts biodiversity at risk. Then, once a biofuel crop has been planted on deforested land, farmers need to ensure that it grows as well as it can. That means applying large quantities of fertiliser, and while this helps the plants to shoot up, there is also the possibility it will lead to the contamination of local rivers.
C
Not all biofuels have been grown on land, but the once-popular idea of generating them from microscopic algae grown in ponds or tanks has largely been forgotten. Professor Rachel Burton leader of the ARC Centre of Excellence for Plant Cell Walls at the University of Adelaide, thinks that there is a smarter way forward for biofuels and it starts with selecting the right crop for land not usually used for agriculture. Burton and others are looking to tough plants that grow on land too dry or salty for conventional crops. Australia, for example, could turn to crops such as agave, hemp or the native saltbush and wild-growing sorghum for the biofuels of the future, she says.
D
Researchers must also consider economic factors, however. While plant oils can be extracted and turned into biodiesel for vehicles and machinery, currently the process is very expensive – much more so than the process for fossil fuels. Dr Allan Green is innovation leader for bio- based products at CSIRO Agriculture and Food. His solution is to make plants oilier by genetically altering them so that they produce oil in their leaves, not just in their fruit or seeds. With more oil being produced on a particular section of land by the same number of plants, it would become cheaper to harvest and extract the oil. The technology, which has so far only been tested in tobacco, shows that oil production can be boosted to a third or more of a tobacco leaf’s weight. If used in a different crop – one that already produces oil in its seeds or fruit – the hope is that oil output could be doubled, though that idea is yet to be put to the test.
E
A technology which is becoming increasingly popular in the biofuel industry is hydrothermal liquefaction. This is a process which uses heat and pressure to break apart molecules in whole plants and remove oxygen, so that the raw material is turned into ‘bio-crude oil’. Then, just as we need to refine the crude oil made from fossil fuels, the plant-based oil is also refined. After this, it can then be turned into different kinds of fuel. One advantage of the hydrothermal liquefaction process is that many kinds of plant can be used. And if this process could run on energy from solar panels or wind farms, it would be much more environmentally sustainable.
F
New processing technologies are giving biofuel producers hope that, in future, they won’t be limited to plants designed to be biofuel-only crops. Perhaps they will be able to choose species that deliver added benefits or sources of income. Hemp crops, for instance, could be used for their oil, but also for their fibre. Some car manufacturers have already used it as a soundproofing material in their vehicles, and others may do the same. And according to Kirsten Heimann, associate professor at the College of Science and Engineering at James Cook University, it might be possible, say, for algae not just to act as a biofuel, but to decontaminate water. Burton believes this kind of multi-purpose use for biofuel crops is the way forward. ‘It’s much more sophisticated thinking,’ she says. ‘Biofuels maybe don’t need to be as cheap as we think they do, because you can make money out of the other things.’ Eventually, the biofuel industry could well develop into a very diverse one, with no one crop or process dominating the market, according to Green. ‘The amount of fuel we need to move away from petroleum is massive, so there’s plenty of space for all technologies,’ he says.
51-56. The reading passage has six paragraphs, A-F. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
51. a theory about oil production which must still be proved
52. an overview of the stages in a particular biofuel manufacturing method
53. examples of the uses that biofuel crops might have apart from providing energy
54. an explanation of the way that fossil fuel use harms the environment
55. reference to a particular biofuel production method being abandoned
56. a comparison between the production costs for biofuels and for other kinds of fuel
57-60. Look at the following statements and the list of researchers below. Match each statement with the correct researcher, A, B, or C. You may use any letter more than once. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
57. It would be more cost-effective if a biofuel was used for a range of products.
58. It is not always easy to predict what effects the use of biofuel crops may have.
59. A variety of biofuel crops and manufacturing processes will be required in the future.
60. It would be best to use biofuel crops that can survive in difficult environmental conditions.
List of researchers
A Professor Bill Laurance
B Professor Rachel Burton
C Dr Allan Green
61-63. Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
61. The decision by US farmers to grow __________ had an effect on land in Brazil.
62. __________ is threatened when trees are cut down so crops can be planted.
63. Rivers may be polluted by the __________ that farmers use on biofuel crops.
Part 3: In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. Read the passage and choose from paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap. There is ONE extra paragraph which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
The Negotiators
Our everyday lives are punctuated by different types of negotiations, whether discussing divisions of labour within the home, asking for a raise at work, or even complaining about bad service. Therefore, it is surprising how unskilled the average human is at undertaking these kinds of negotiations, with results which can vary from having requests fall on deaf ears to inciting a full-blown row.
64.
This is illustrated by a story from the Middle East, in which three sons are left camels in their father’s will. The eldest son is left half of the camels, the middle son one-third, and the youngest one-ninth. Yet with 17 camels, they were unable to divide them. After much quarreling, they went to see an old wise man, who listened carefully and then gave them his own camel. The eldest then took half of the 18 camels – nine – the second then took six camels – his third – and the youngest then took two camels – his ninth. And the wise man? Well, he took his left-over camel back!
65.
Without question, the most important negotiations of all happen in life-or-death situations, like kidnappings or hostage crises, and the procedures for dealing with these situations have been carefully refined. The Behavioural Change Stairway Model (BCSM) is a negotiation strategy developed by the FBI to communicate with dangerous criminals in these kinds of situations.
66.
Their approach is underpinned by the belief that, in order to gain influence over somebody, both understanding the emotional thinking of the other person and creating some form of empathy is essential, winning out over logical reasoning every time in such situations. This doesn’t mean agreeing with the other party’s feelings, but certainly acknowledging and understanding them.
67.
In addition to this, simply mirroring the final few words of what they have said, or giving a comment that’s either positive or neutral, can show that the other party’s perspective is recognized and valued. This could be something as simple as, “You seem quite upset. I can see how you feel.” When these statements are followed by a pause, it also gives the other party time to open up further regarding their internal motivations and limits.
68.
It would be logical to think that due to the success of these kinds of methods, and statistics show they do work, they would be expanded into other arenas, and this is indeed the case. When we look to the business world, we can see how emotional connection plays a key role in all sectors where there is any form of decision-making or negotiation.
69.
In fact, one study found that the success of a negotiation could be predicted just within the first few minutes of interaction, not by measuring what was said, but by looking at volume, pitch, pace of speech, and body language as well as cardiogram readouts to show the physical reaction of participants. Where they were more aligned and balanced, there was a better outcome.
70.
While it’s not always easy to take a step back and just listen and absorb what is happening, all the evidence suggests that it might well lead to the best outcome. Perhaps next time you want something from your partner, or boss at work, the best approach may be to diffuse any tension, acknowledge your and their concerns, and get their angle before coming in with your own.
Missing Paragraphs:
A. In order to achieve these two objectives, communication and listening skills are required. Non-judgmental open-ended questions and statements that ascertain the state of mind of the other person can be the best friend of this kind of interaction. Statements like “Tell me how that happened” are far more effective than anything more direct and confrontational, which can enflame the ire of the other party.
B. This indicates that a positive attitudinal outlook may well be more effective in achieving an expected outcome than treating other participants in a more cold, robotic manner. The emotionally intelligent may even have the upper hand over the intellectually intelligent in terms of these kinds of scenarios, as they have the ability to sit back, identify their and others’ emotions, how it affects thinking and how this can be managed.
C. Coping with any kind of confrontation in general can be quite a difficult scenario. Be it a criminal in negotiation with the police, or a businessman negotiating a deal, often there can be mixed feelings of vulnerability and fear of being tricked or taken advantage of. Perhaps this is why initial impressions can count for so much, to allay these worries.
D. Only after all of these strategies have been deployed effectively can any influence be exerted over the decision-making. This part of negotiation is usually what most people jump to first, ignoring all the effort to get the other party on side, yet initiating solutions and agreements is far easier to do, and more successful, when it’s negotiated between two collaborators rather than adversaries.
E. This is simply because people are usually far too concerned with putting their own opinion across, and showing they are right, to really negotiate effectively with their counterpart. This not only puts the back up of the other party, but it also fails to identify common ground or a third or middle way, which then can ultimately lead to a better solution for all.
F. Naturally, the kinds of individuals who negotiate these sorts of transactions need to have a very particular skill set. Usually, former police and military must have the ability to remain completely unnerved during highly stressful circumstances, and to understand and identify with what many people might consider the unidentifiable.
G. But this wasn’t always the case. Until recently, emotion was viewed as something that impedes negotiation, with business experts advising people to leave their feelings at the door and focus on the problem rather than the personalities in the room. Yet there is increasing evidence of the flaws in this thinking as more emotionally based insights are coming to the fore.
H. The lesson here may seem obvious; that when confronted with a dilemma that seems unsolvable, rather than go in all guns blazing arguing for your position, it’s better to step back and look at it from all perspectives to try and find the way forward. While this might be something the average person on the street may struggle with, in many settings this is the first step to tip the scales of success in negotiations.
IV. WRITING (6.0 points)
Part 1: Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
71.
a. When a leading Canadian psychologist asked people to keep a diary of every mood they experienced throughout the day, it was the negative moods that predominated.
b. We all have a tendency to notice the negative feelings rather than the positive feelings, but the good news is that we are happier than we tend to think.
c. But when he paged the people at random intervals and asked them how they were feeling at that exact moment, it was clear that they felt good most of the time.
A. a-b-c B. c-b-a C. b-c-a D. b-a-c
72.
a. Lastly, avoid leaving drawers and doors open unnecessarily and do not trail cables or flexes across the floor.
b. For personal safety, you must be familiar with the emergency procedures in your building so that you know what to do in the event of fire, spillages, or other accidents.
c. To begin with, do not enter restricted areas without authorization, and at all times observe the warnings given.
d. Then, do not wedge fire doors open or tamper with door closures, and do not block doorways, corridors, or stairs, as obstructions may affect access in the event of a fire.
A. b-c-d-a B. d-a-c-b C. b-d-a-c D. d-b-a-c
73.
a. Symptoms can include fever, chills, headache, muscle pain, extreme fatigue, a dry cough, sore throat, and stuffy nose.
b. Flu (influenza) is an acute viral respiratory infection.
c. It spreads easily from person to person: at home, at school, at work, at the supermarket, or on the train.
d. It gets passed on when someone who already has flu coughs or sneezes and is transmitted through the air by droplets, or it can be spread by hands infected by the virus.
e. Most people will recover within a week but flu can cause severe illness or even death in people at high risk.
A. b-c-d-a-e B. a-c-b-e-d C. b-d-a-e-c D. d-b-a-c-e
74.
a. First, although you can’t guess every question you might be asked, if you are prepared, you can tailor your answers to fit.
b. Third, attitude matters.
c. Second, if you’re well prepared, you will have more confidence and this will affect the way you come across.
d. There are three main reasons to prepare for an interview.
e. Prospective employers will choose a not-quite-perfect but willing candidate over a brilliant one who obviously isn’t bothered.
A. b-c-d-e-a B. d-a-c-b-e C. b-d-a-e-c D. d-b-a-c-e
75.
a. This is your chance to tell us about yourself, and the qualities and experience you have that make you the ideal person for the job.
b. Our recruitment process has two main stages and here’s how it works.
c. If you reach the second stage, we’ll arrange a telephone discussion, where you can find out more about us, including the rewards on offer.
d. The first stage is to use our online application form to apply for a current vacancy.
e. We’re looking for keen and effective people who are passionate about working as Travel Sales Consultants in our rapidly-growing team.
f. For instance, once a year we acknowledge outstanding efforts and celebrate successes with our co-workers, and we have prize-giving ceremonies designed to do just this.
A. b-c-d-a-e-f B. d-e-f-a-c-b C. e-b-d-a-c-f D. d-b-a-c-e-f
76.
a. This continued until around 2,000 years ago, when human pressure began to affect it.
b. During the first 5,000 years or so, the sea pulsated with life.
c. Research has shown that some of the larger creatures disappeared more than 500 years ago.
d. There was a high level of biodiversity on the seabed too; the salt marshes and mud flats on the coast supported millions of birds.
e. And by the late 19th century, populations of most of the other mammals and fish were severely reduced, leading to the collapse of several traditional fisheries.
f. Around 7,500 years ago, shrinking glaciers and the resulting higher water levels led to the development of what’s called the Wadden Sea.
A. b-c-d-e-f-a B. a-c-b-e-f-d C. f-b-d-a-c-e D. f-a-c-b-e-d
77.
Dear Arantxa,
a. Now you’ve probably been wondering what has happened to your goldfish.
b. You will have noticed that they are a bit smaller and, I think, redder than they used to be.
c. I’m sorry, I meant to leave a note about this, but I forgot.
d. Thanks very much for lending me your flat while you were away.
e. I hope you enjoyed your holiday in Morocco as much as I enjoyed my stay in Vitoria.
f. I’ll tell you all about it when I see you at my party on Nov 5th – I do hope you haven’t changed your mind about coming.
A. d-e-f-b-c-a B. d-e-f-a-c-b C. e-b-d-f-c-a D. f-e-d-c-a-b
Part 2: For each of the questions below, complete the second sentence so that it is similar in meaning to the original sentence. Use the given word if there is any. Do not change the given word in any way.
78. Many people assume that all deserts are hot, but they’re mistaken.
Contrary to popular _______________________________________________________________.
79. I regret that I didn’t listen to your advice earlier.
If ______________________________________________________________________________.
80. Her modesty sharply contrasted with her major achievements.
There __________________________________________________________________________.
81. You must never leave your revision to the last minute.
Under __________________________________________________________________________.
82. Our representatives have been criticizing the new concept. (critical)
Our representatives _______________________________________________________________.
83. She was extremely angry when she realized they had lied to her. (foamed)
She ____________________________________________________________________________.
84. It took a lot of effort to convince him to speak at the conference. (arm)
It took __________________________________________________________________________.
85. Unfortunately, our secret plans had been revealed before we began. (away)
Unfortunately, ___________________________________________________________________.
Part 3: Look at the conversation below. Based on the conversation, complete the report using your own words. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Annette: I wonder if you can help me, Gary, I’ve been asked to write a report on one of our new clerical workers, but I’ve been away for three months and I hardly know where to start. She’s called Kit Harrison. I think she came in January.
Gary: Well, first of all I’d say Kit’s been fantastic, especially in the circumstances. I mean, I think you’ll remember that, what with the epidemic, then the nurses’ strike, there have been a lot of problems; so everyone in the hospital’s been getting pretty tired and fed up, and there’s been a lot of lateness and absenteeism. Anyway, Kit’s been one of the few who hasn’t let the pressures affect her. She’s always on time, and she’s never been off sick. I’ve even managed to get her to work overtime once or twice, on the rare occasion when she didn’t have any rehearsals to go to.
Annette: I remember now. Isn’t she some kind of pop singer?
Gary: Something like that. She used to talk about it all the time, but I had to put a stop to it. In her first few weeks she’d spend the whole morning telling everyone about her music and her adventures – everybody loved it, of course, and nobody got any work done, so I had a word with her and now she toes the line.
Annette: And her work?
Gary: As I say, she’s serious and hardworking. Oh yes, we did have one teething problem. At first she was pretty hopeless on the computer and she didn’t seem to know any of the software. But we sent her on a course, and now she’s fine.
Appraisal Report: Kit Harrison
I am pleased to report that Kit has performed exceptionally well in her duties as Administrative Assistant since (86) __________ us on 5 January. The hospital has been beset with a number of difficulties during this time and I have been particularly impressed by the manner in which Kit has not (87) __________ these to affect the quality of her work.
Kit was quick to develop a good working relationship with her colleagues, and if at first her private life threatened to (88) __________ the workplace, she soon learned where to draw the line.
So far as her administrative skills are concerned, the only question mark has been over her lack of familiarity with some of our computer software. This has, (89) __________, been remedied by a recent training course.
Her (90) __________ and attendance have been excellent, and she has been willing to work overtime when the situation has required it. In sum, a most satisfactory start.
Part 4: Read the following informal message in which someone describes an unpleasant hotel stay to a friend. Use the information in the message to complete the numbered gaps in the formal letter. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each gap. Number (0) has been done as an example. The words you need do not occur in the informal message. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Informal message:
Dear Sarah,
What a ghastly trip I had! I have to write to the travel operators and tell them off. You’d think they could get the facts straight in their recent booklet. But no. The hotel rooms were supposed to be three-star, and I was supposed to get all my meals. At least, that’s what they promised, but I even had to pay extra for dinner, and the Mediterranean was nowhere in sight. What a dump that hotel was, providing nothing but a swimming pool. I told their man on the spot but he just said that everything in the brochure was kosher and correct, and it was all my fault for not checking. But I did! No doubt about it. I want all my money back. Slim chance, though. Oh, misery!
Formal letter of complaint:
Dear Sir,
I write to (0) complain about the package tour to Marbella booked through your company on the 15th July for the period 10-16 September. The holiday is advertised on page 34 of your (91) __________ brochure.
The (92) __________ given in the brochure completely misrepresented the reality. According to your brochure, (93) __________ should have been three-star, with (94) __________ and double room with sea view. However, the hotel I stayed in had no stars at all. It was an ordinary pension. The room itself was cramped, even though it contained only one single bed. It faced away from the sea to a noisy and crowded side street. A (95) __________ had to be paid for an evening meal. To make matters worse, the hotel had no (96) __________: no swimming pool or private beach, both of which were promised by your misleading brochure.
On top of everything else, when I took the matter up with your (97) __________, Mr. Greg Morton, he did nothing at all. He said I should have (98) __________ the details of the brochure when I booked. In fact, I did so, as far as I was able, by asking my travel agent. He assured me I could rely on the (99) __________ your brochure. He was wrong.
I write to you in the expectation of a (100) __________ of the £650.00 I paid.
Yours faithfully,
———- HẾT ———-
