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CBreakdown đề HSG Tiếng Anh 9 Đồng Hới 2024-2025: Listening đến Writing
Đề HSG lớp 9 Đồng Hới môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2024–2025 – 150 phút – 06 trang – 4 phần – 90 câu
A. Listening (20 điểm)
• Hội thoại chọn đáp án: 5 câu – 5 điểm
• True/False nghe hiểu: 5 câu – 5 điểm
• Note completion: 10 câu – 10 điểm
B. Pronunciation & Lexico-Grammar (35 điểm)
• Phát âm + trọng âm: 5 câu – 7 điểm
• MCQ từ vựng/ngữ pháp: 10 câu – 10 điểm
• Word form: 5 câu – 5 điểm
• Error correction: 5 câu – 5 điểm
• Phrasal verbs: 5 câu – 5 điểm
• Verb forms/tenses: 5 câu – 5 điểm
C. Reading (20 điểm)
• Open cloze: 7 câu – 7 điểm
• MC cloze: 8 câu – 8 điểm
• Reading comprehension: 5 câu – 5 điểm
D. Writing (25 điểm)
• Sentence transformation: 10 câu – 10 điểm
• Key word transformation: 5 câu – 5 điểm
• Paragraph writing: 1 bài – 10 điểm
📥 Nhấn vào đây để tải đề thi, đáp án và audio miễn phí
Trên đây là toàn bộ thông tin về đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9 Đồng Hới 2024-2025. Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp học sinh lớp 9 ôn luyện hiệu quả, nâng cao kỹ năng và tự tin chinh phục các kỳ thi quan trọng.
Đề thi chính thức
PHÒNG GD&ĐT
ĐỒNG HỚI
(Đề thi có 06 trang) ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (20 pts)
Part 1: For questions 1-5, you are going to hear two women talking about a holiday in France. Listen and choose the correct answer. (5 pts)
1. Paula’s friend says that __________.
A. she has been ill
B. Paula doesn’t look very well
C. she’s pleased to see Paula
2. Before the trip, Paula __________.
A. was enthusiastic about it
B. wanted to go to the Lake District
C. didn’t tell anybody she was going
3. Before Mark and Paula went to Paris, __________.
A. Mark’s boss didn’t want him to go
B. Paula arranged for somebody to look after the hamster
C. Paula’s sister promised to look after the children
4. The journey across the Channel __________.
A. was very smooth
B. was unpleasant for Paula
C. lasted eight hours
5. The return trip from Paris was __________.
A. disturbed by a flood
B. an enjoyable experience
C. earlier than planned
Part 2: For questions 6-10, you will hear a talk about one of the seven natural wonders. Listen and decide if the statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). (5 pts)
6. Cairns has the fifth busiest airport in the southern hemisphere.
7. Great Adventures is the name of a travel company.
8. Green Island is 6,000 years old.
9. It takes 45 minutes to fly to Green Island from Cairns.
10. You are only allowed to go to the pontoon once.
Part 3: For questions 11-20, listen to the recording and complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (10 pts)
The use of soil to reduce carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere
Rattan Lai:
• Claims that 13% of CO2 in the atmosphere could be absorbed by agricultural soils.
• Erosion is more likely in soil that is (11) __________.
• Lai found soil in Africa that was (12) __________.
• It was suggested that carbon from soil was entering the atmosphere.
Soil and carbon:
• Plants turn CO2 from the air into sugars and other (13) __________.
• Some CO2 moves from the (14) __________ of plants to microbes in the soil.
• Carbon was lost from the soil when agriculture was invented.
Regenerative agriculture:
• Uses established practices to make sure soil remains fertile and (15) __________.
• E.g through year-round planting and increasing the (16) __________ of plants that are grown.
California study:
• Taking place on a big (17) __________ farm.
• Uses compost made from waste from agriculture and (18) __________.
Australian study:
• Aims to increase soil carbon by (19) __________ that are always green.
Future developments may include:
• Reducing the amount of fertilizer used in farming.
• Giving farmers (20) __________ for carbon storage, as well as their produce.
SECTION TWO: PRONUNCIATION AND LEXICO-GRAMMAR (35 pts)
Part 1: Pick out the word (A, B, C, or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three words. (5 pts)
21. A. pool B. stood C. shoot D. soon
22. A. debt B. doubt C. subtle D. noticeable
23. A. talked B. passed C. wretched D. touched
Part 2: Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (2 pts)
24. A. hero B. account C. cancer D. genius
25. A. attend B. finish C. design D. invent
Part 3: Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to best complete the following sentences. (10 pts)
26. I don’t think I can put up with people who drop __________ in public places.
A. rubbish B. waste C. litter D. leftover
27. To save __________ and reduce our carbon footprints, we should turn off all our appliances when we don’t use them.
A. light B. energy C. life D. environment
28. Our music teacher has been invited to be a __________ in many music competitions and talent shows.
A. fan B. competitor C. contestant D. judge
29. The band recorded a new __________, which immediately became a number one hit.
A. music B. single C. singer D. concert
30. Lack of education limits women’s access __________ information and opportunities.
A. from B. to C. about D. with
31. Saudi Arabia is one of the last countries to allow women to vote, and this is an important step towards gender __________.
A. gap B. distance C. equality D. roles
32. Using digital devices in class can help students improve their __________ experience in many methods.
A. educational B. technical C. learn D. education
33. Teachers are looking for __________ ways to encourage learning and improve their teaching methods.
A. new B. traditional C. face-to-face D. blended
34. Vietnam is a member of many international __________.
A. programmes B. communities C. businesses D. organizations
35. Women and men must have equal __________ so that they make the most of their lives and talents.
A. behaviours B. rights C. ways D. choices
Part 4: Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences. (5 pts)
36. The police set off in __________ of the bank robbers. (PURSUE)
37. You need a lot of __________ if you want to be a successful musician. (DETERMINE)
38. Jane was filled with __________ to know what her birthday present was going to be. (CURIOUS)
39. The children were very __________ about going to the beach for the day. (ENTHUSE)
40. On completing the course __________, Tony was awarded a diploma. (SUCCESS)
Part 5: Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them. (5 pts)
41. This kind of bird is only founded in remote areas in Scotland.
42. People should avoid using products which make from plastic.
43. I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
44. I am not fond of reading fiction books as they are imaginable ones which are not real.
45. It is such difficult a task that we can’t understand it.
Part 6: Complete each sentence with a suitable form of one of the phrasal verbs in the box. Use each one ONCE only. There are TWO extra ones that you do not need to use. (5 pts)
hand over call off take to see off
back up go over see through
46. I didn’t __________ my stepmother at first, but after a while, we grew closer.
47. The moment the teacher __________ the exam papers, I was filled with anxiety.
48. You will have to __________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
49. My colleagues have promised to __________ me when I tell the manager about my ideas.
50. You should have __________ your composition carefully before you handed it in.
Part 7: The verbs given in the brackets in their appropriate tenses or forms. (5 pts)
51. He is planning (complete) __________ all his coursework by next week.
52. I am disappointed that you didn’t tell me. You (tell) __________ me!
53. Not only she (pass) __________ the exam but she also got a scholarship.
54. I (follow) __________ his advice, we wouldn’t be in danger now.
55. Nam asked that a trustee (appoint) __________ to take control of the company.
SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (20 pts)
Part 1: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. (7 pts)
Family time is when family members do things (56) __________. Ways of spending family time vary from taking a family (57) __________ in a nice place every year, or planning a family movie night every week, to having one (58) __________ together. Every day some families spend time together just by having regular family meetings. Family members can sit together to (59) __________ important issues and make decisions, or just have a chat. Some people may think it is (60) __________ for everyone to find time for their family. In many cases, parents as well as children have to adjust their own timetables to make (61) __________ to be with their family. Family time is important as it helps make the bonds between family members (62) __________ and creates fond memories of happy experiences.
Part 2: Read the passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (8 pts)
Stress is important. We all need a certain amount of it in order to lead fulfilling lives. However, if we have too much of it, it can have the opposite (63) __________. Some people can tolerate greater (64) __________ of stress than others. But most of us will suffer at some time in our lives. It is therefore a good idea to learn a few stress management techniques. Identifying the (65) __________ of the problem we have, so that we can (66) __________ it more effectively, is one of the first (67) __________ towards reducing stress. The second is talking to a person you can trust, who will listen and, if necessary, give you some positive advice. Not only are smoking and drinking harmful to our health, so they actually increase stress (68) __________ than reduce it. So, next time you want to relax (69) __________ of reaching for that glass of wine or a cigarette, have a warm bath or go for a walk. Walking has more than health benefits, it helps you think more clearly too. Pets have a calming influence on us, unless they make noise which irritates us. In fact, unwanted noises should be (70) __________ as far as possible. On the other hand, laughter is one of the best ways to make yourself feel considerably better.
63. A. influence B. solution C. answer D. effect
64. A. levels B. platforms C. grades D. scales
65. A. purpose B. occurrence C. cause D. reason
66. A. rather B. solve C. do D. cope
67. A. movements B. methods C. ways D. steps
68. A. more B. rather C. as D. quite
69. A. ahead B. other C. because D. instead
70. A. subtracted B. avoided C. limited D. transported
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each question. (5 pts)
Over the past few years, working from home has become very popular all over the world. An increasing number of companies allow employees to work from home at least one or two days a week. There are also companies that hire only remote workers. While working from home can come with many benefits, there are also some drawbacks to consider.
The most common advantage is that it doesn’t involve any commute to work. Many people spend more than 30 minutes each way travelling to their workplace and often have to deal with train delays or traffic jams during rush hour. Long daily commuting is also linked with increased levels of stress and anxiety. Therefore, people save time for getting extra sleep or eating a healthy breakfast if they work from home. Furthermore, working from home offers greater flexibility, which means employees can choose when to start and finish their working day as long as they complete all tasks on time and meet the deadlines. By having control over work schedules, people can attend to personal matters and achieve better work-life balance. For example, working mothers can take care of their children or adult learners can fit classes into their busy lives.
However, working from home is not suitable for everyone. Some employees may feel isolated and lonely when they don’t have much contact with colleagues and organisation as a whole. They may miss the social interaction and advice from their team. In addition, people also prefer face-to-face supervision and meetings with managers or colleagues. Therefore, it would be difficult for these employees to complete their work on their own at home. In addition, when people work from home, they may find it hard to avoid distractions such as screaming children, dogs barking, or household chores. Even if they have a dedicated workspace in their home, it may not be easy for them to stay focused on their work, be efficient, and meet targets.
71. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Why employees need to work from home
B. Pros and cons of working from home
C. Working from home is not for everyone
D. The future of working from home
72. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of working from home according to paragraph 2?
A. You don’t travel during rush hour.
B. You spend more time sleeping.
C. You work flexible hours to suit your lifestyle.
D. You don’t have to meet deadlines.
73. The word their in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. people’s B. employees’ C. managers’ D. adult learners’
74. The word distractions in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. interruptions B. chores C. disorders D. stresses
75. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of working from home?
A. Feeling disconnected from colleagues and the organisation as a whole.
B. Having no in-person meetings or supervision.
C. Being unable to stay focused at home.
D. Having to design a dedicated workplace at home.
SECTION FOUR: WRITING (25 pts)
Part 1: For questions 76-85, complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed above it. (10 pts)
76. Sally lost all her hope; she decided to stop her business.
Such _________________________________________________________________________
77. His computer game addiction is getting worse.
He is _________________________________________________________________________
78. It seems that no one predicted the correct result of the test.
No one _______________________________________________________________________
79. Immediately after his appointment as the new editor, he fell ill.
No sooner _____________________________________________________________________
80. It was wrong of you to allow a four-year-old child to walk home alone.
You should ____________________________________________________________________
81. Everyone but Jane failed to produce the correct answer.
Only Jane _____________________________________________________________________
82. Mark is a passionate skier and he also takes part in skateboarding tournaments.
Apart _________________________________________________________________________
83. “You should have finished the report by now,” John told his secretary.
John reproached ________________________________________________________________
84. Yolanda’s family persuaded her to enter the competition.
Yolanda was talked ______________________________________________________________
85. They haven’t found out what caused the accident.
They have yet __________________________________________________________________
Part 2: Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentences printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between THREE and FIVE words. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (5 pts)
86. The book was not as good as he had hoped. (EXPECTATIONS)
The book failed to _______________________________________________________________
87. You needn’t make that simple task so challenging. (HEAVY)
You needn’t ______________________________________________________ that simple task.
88. I really admire you for your improvement. (HAT)
I take ______________________________________________________ for your improvement.
89. The first sign of the disease is a feeling of faintness. (ONSET)
The _______________________________________________ is shown by a feeling of faintness.
90. “Let’s not make any plans and just see what happens.” (EAR)
Peter suggested ____________________________________________ just seeing what happens.
Part 3: Paragraph writing (10 pts)
In about 150 words, write a paragraph about ways to prevent underage students from riding electric motorbikes to school.
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