Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 12 tỉnh Thừa Thiên Huế năm học 2020-2021 có đáp án và file nghe

Mời quý thầy cô và các bạn tham khảo Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 12 tỉnh Thừa Thiên Huế năm học 2020-2021 có đáp án và file nghe (audio), bài thi được Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo tổ chức gồm 11 trang kèm đáp án chính thức. Quý độc giả có thể tải xuống (file word+pdf) ở đường link phía dưới để ôn luyện cho Kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 12 năm tới.

Cấu trúc Đề thi chọn Học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 có 4 phần chính:

1. Listening: 20 câu hỏi, mỗi câu đúng được 2 điểm, tổng cộng 40 điểm.

2. Grammar & Vocabulary: 25 câu hỏi, với 15 điểm cho phần Grammar và 10 điểm cho phần Vocabulary, tổng cộng 50 điểm.

3. Reading: 30 câu hỏi, được phân thành 3 phần với mỗi phần đúng được 10 điểm, tổng cộng 60 điểm.

4. Writing: Tương đương 25 điểm, với 5 điểm cho phần viết và 10 điểm cho mỗi phần Grammar và Vocabulary.

Tải xuống: Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 12 tỉnh Thừa Thiên Huế năm học 2020-2021 có đáp án và file nghe

Trích dẫn nội dung "Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh lớp 12 THPT - môn Tiếng Anh (Phổ thông) năm học 2021-2022 - Sở GD&ĐT tỉnh Thừa Thiên Huế":

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(CÓ 11 TRANG)

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (PHỔ THÔNG)

Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm (bằng số)

Điểm (bằng chữ)

Họ tên, chữ ký Mã phách

Giám khảo 1:

Giám khảo 2:

Complete the notes below.

I. LISTENING (40 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

- Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe MỘT lần; mỗi phần cách nhau

khoảng 45 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.

- Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 02 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài nghe.

Part 1: (20 points) Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Notes On Adult Education Classes

Example Answer

Number of classes per week: 7

Tuesday:

1. 6:00-5:30 p.m.

- limited space: no more than 2. participants Book Club

- Must read 3. books

4. Group

- learn about local events last century

Wednesday:

Scrabble Club 5.

- popular

Thursday:

Chess Night

- serious

- For special occasions

Questions 7-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or each answer.

Adult Learners’ Week

No cost but must make 7.

- September 1-8 Techno Expo

- Learn how to use 8.

- Learn about online security issues and online entertainment

- Monday, 1:00- 4:30 p.m.

- Consider values

- Learn how to attain harmony

- Wednesday, 1:00- 4:30 p.m.

Venue: 10.

Part 2: (20 points) Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15

Choose correct letter, A, B, C. Example B

How long was Nadia away?

A. five minutes B. fifteen minutes C. forty-five minutes

11. What did Nadia buy at the bookshop?

A. a newspaper B. a novel C. crossword puzzles

12. Thomas is interested in the play about

A. a hunter. B. a pirate. C. a doctor.

13. The couple in the bookshop were discussing

A. a funny play. B. a smooth play. C. a boring play.

14. How does Nadia want her coffee?

A. sweet and black B. with milk C. black with no sugar

15. What kind of muffin does Nadia want?

A. plain B. berry C. chocolate

Questions 16-20

How likely are Thomas and Nadia to visit the following attractions?

Write correct letter, A, B, or C in boxes 16-20.

16. the Tower of London

17. the Wheel

18. Westminster

19. the British Museum

20. Buckingham Palace

Your answers: (Write the letter A, B, or C)

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 21-35, choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes provided (30 points).

21. , such as banking and travel, computers are not a convenience: they are necessity.

A. Where some industries B. There are some industries

C. In some industries D. Some industries

22. Not until the seventeenth century to measure the speed of light.

A. anyone did even attempt B. did even attempt anyone

C. even did anyone attempt D. did anyone even attempt

23. Copper is the favored metal for electricians’ wire because of .

A. its excellent conductivity B. it is an excellent conductor

C. excellent conductivity of it D. so conductive is it

24. Should early injections against diseases, they might have a lower risk of infections in late preschool and early school age.

A. receive B. be receiving C. children receive D. children’s reception

25. is lubricated can affect the longevity of the moving parts that rub together.

A. Often a machine B. How often a machine C. A machine often D. How often machines

26. His answer was so confused that I could hardly make any of it at all.

A. sense B. meaning C. interpretation D. intelligibility

27. He often about his expensive motorbike.

A. shows B. praises C. boasts D. prides

28. The accused was given a short sentence as he had committed only a offence.

A. subordinate B. minor C. secondary D. minimal

29. I heard the sound of the blind man with his stick.

A. creaking B. tapping C. patting D. ticking

30. This man was so arrogant that he is completely to all criticism.

A. unconscious B. unaware C. regardless D. impervious

31. The period table contains all the elements, has a particular atomic weight and atomic

number.

A. each of which B. which of each C. which each D. each

32. When aeroplane were first invented, the invention did not look as no one could get it to fly for long periods of time.

A. extensive B. promising C. efficient D. convenient

33. My husband always gives to me when we have an argument.

A. out B. on C. off D. in

34. When you are in the desert, you have to keep your eyes for snakes that may be hidden in the sand.

A. wide B. unblinking C. peeled D. sharp

35. Many companies do not want to spend too much on waste as the cost is really high.

A. disposal B. discharge C. rid D. release

Your answers:

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

Part 2: For questions 36-45, use the correct form of each of the words given in parentheses to fill in the blank. (0) has been done as an example. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided (20 points).

THE IMAGE OF SCIENCE

The image that we have of science has (0-GO)...undergone... radical change in the last hundred years. An enormous (36. TECHNOLOGY) explosion, together with a number of very real (37. ANXIOUS) about the environment and all the moral and political ramifications of economic growth have (38. QUESTION) put science at the center of public debate.

The twentieth century began with a challenge to the (39. ASSUME) that human knowledge was approaching completion. It will come, perhaps, as something of a surprise to all of us to realize that

the emergence of this highly (40. DESTROY) process came both from within and outside science.

New scientific theories (41. OVERWHELM) reveal the limitations of the old perspective. We had thought that the world, understood through the medium of rational (42. BE) was, indeed, the real world. Now we know that this was no more than a simplification that just happened to work. Once we realize this, though, we can move in a number of opposing directions. We can re-evaluate all knowledge (43. PESSIMISM) and decide that it is eternally fragmentary and full of a vast number of (44. PERFECTION) , or we can be more positive and view these vast explosions of scientific awareness as new challenges still to come and as celebrations of the (45. HIGH) that the human imagination has so far scale.

Your answers:

0. undergone

36. 37. 38. 39.

40. 41. 42. 43.

III. READING (60 points)

Part 1: For questions 46-55, Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (20 points).

THE SENSE OF SMELL

Smell is the most direct of all the senses. It is thought to be the oldest sense in terms of human evolution, which may explain why smell is hard-wired into the brain. The olfactory nerve, which manages the perception of smells, is essentially an extension of the brain. The olfactory nerve provides a direct link from receptors at the top of the nose to the portion of the brain that controls memory, emotion, and behavior.

The olfactory system detects certain airborne chemicals that enter the nose and then transmits this chemical information to the limbic system in the brain. The olfactory region at the upper end of each nostril is yellow, moist, and full of fatty substances. The shade of yellow indicates the strength of the sense of smell: the deeper the shade, the keener and more acute it is. Animals have a very strong sense of smell, so their olfactory regions are dark yellow to reddish brown, while those of humans are light yellow.

When an odorous substance enters the nose, it binds to olfactory receptor cells, the neurons lining the yellow upper portion of the nasal cavity. Olfactory receptor cells contain microscopic hairs called cilia that extend into the layer of mucus coating the inside of the nose. Odor molecules diffuse into this region and are absorbed by the cilia of the olfactory receptor cells. What this means is that when we hold a rose to our nose and inhale, odor molecules float up into the nasal cavity, where they are absorbed by five million olfactory receptor cells. The receptor cells alert the olfactory nerve, which sends impulses to the brain’s olfactory bulb, or smell center. Thus, olfactory information about the rose enters the brain’s limbic system, where, in most of us, it stimulates a feeling of pleasure.

The limbic system of the brain integrates memory, emotion, and behavior. The system is composed of a group of related nervous system structures that are the functional center of emotions such as anger, fear, pleasure, and sadness. (1) The components of the limbic system are linked to the cerebral cortex, the part of the brain involved in complex learning, reasoning, and personality. (2) The cerebral cortex makes decisions about the emotional content of these unique human qualities after “consulting” the limbic system and other brain centers in processing and retrieving memories. (3) It may, in turn, use memories to modify behavior. (4)

Scent may be the strongest trigger of memory and emotions. When we inhale a scent, receptors in the brain’s limbic center compare the odor entering our nose to odors stored in our memory. Along the way, memories associated with those odors are stimulated. A smell can be overwhelmingly nostalgic because it triggers powerful images and emotions. The waxy fragrance of crayons can instantly transport us to our second-grade classroom, or the scent of freshly mown grass can flood us with the joy of summer freedom. What we see and hear may ’fade quickly in short-term memory, but what we smell is sent directly to long-term memory.

Smells can increase alertness and stimulate learning and retention. In one study, children memorized a word list, which was presented both with and without accompanying scents. The children recalled words on the list more easily and with higher accuracy when the list was given with scents than without, showing the link between smell and the ability to retain information. In another study, researchers examined how various smells can increase alertness and decrease stress. They found that the scent of lavender could wake up the metabolism and make people more alert. They also found that the smell of spiced apples could reduce blood pressure and avert a panic attack in people under stress.

Glossary:

- nostalgic: causing a desire for things, persons, or situations of the past; causing homesickness

- retention: the act of retaining; keeping, holding, or maintaining

46. Why does the author use the term hard-wired in describing the sense of smell and the brain?

A. To describe the texture and feel of the olfactory nerve

B. To emphasize the close connection between smell and the brain

C. To compare the power of smell with that of other senses

D. To explain how the sense of smell evolved in early humans

47. The word detects in par. 2 is closest in meaning to

A. notices B. destroys C. fights D. compares

48. Of what significance is the color of the olfactory region at the upper end of each nostril?

A. The color changes with different airborne chemicals.

B. The significance of the color is little understood.

C. The color becomes darker when an odor is present.

D. The color shows the strength of the ability to smell.

49. The word diffuse in par.3 is closest in meaning to

A. drop B. flow C. cut D. bend

50. What happens when the cilia of the olfactory receptor cells absorb odor molecules?

A. The tiny hairs inside the nose become darker in color.

B. The nervous system activates the digestive system.

C. The olfactory nerve sends impulses to the brain.

D. Some receptor cells die and are replaced by new cells.

51. The word integrates in par.4 is closest in meaning to

A. predicts B. connects C. damages D. slows

52. When a scent is inhaled, all of the following occur in the limbic system EXCEPT

A. The scent is compared to odor scents stored in memory.

B. The scent is translated to the other sensory organs.

C. The brain stimulates memories associated with the scents.

D. The person may feel an emotion related to a memory.

53. Why does the author mention crayons and freshly mown grass in par. 5?

A. To give examples of smells that can trigger memories and emotions

B. To compare typical responses to two common smells

C. To explain why smells are likely to affect a person's behavior

D. To identify smells that can increase alertness and work effectively

54. The word which in par.6 refers to

A. learning B. study C. list D. smell

55. What can be interfere from par.6 about learning?

A. Learning cannot take place unless all the senses are stimulated.

B. Scents can strengthen the ability to hold new information in the memory.

C. It is easier to recall previous learning than it is to retain new information.

D. Children will not learn much if they are distracted by offensive odors.

Your answers:

46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

Part 2: For questions 56-65, read the passage and fill in the blank with one suitable word (20 points).

Agriculture is the world's most important industry. It provides us with (56) all our food. It also

psuropvpildieessmmaateterriaialslsfo(5r 8tw) o other baisnicmhuakminang nmeaendys –incdloutshtriinagl apnroddsuhcetlstesru. cInhn (a5s7)p) aints and, magerdicicuilntuerse. About half the world's workers are employed in agriculture far more than in any (59) industry.

Agriculture is one of the world's oldest industries. It began about 10,000 years ago in the Middle East.

(60) that time, certain Middle Eastern tribes had discovered how to grow plants from seeds and how to raise (61) in captivity. Having mastered these skills, they could begin to practise agriculture. Before the development of agriculture, people got all their food by gathering wild plants, hunting, and fishing. They had to search for food continually, (62) left them little time for other activities. But as agriculture developed and farm output increased, fewer people were (63)

to produce food. The non-farmers could then develop the arts, crafts, trades, and other activities of civilized life. Agriculture (64) , , not only greatly affected food supply but also (65) civilization possible.

Your answers:

56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

Part 3: For questions 66-75, read the following passage and choose the word that best fits each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes provided (20 points).

HOOKED ON THE NET

The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is the Internet, which has been (66) , for broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could (67) serious problem and ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (68) sufferers help and support.

Psychologists have described many (69) examples, including one man who took his own life after

(70) more than £14,000 to feed his addiction, and a teenager who had to receive psychiatric treatment for his 12-hour-a-day (71) . This illness is not a (72) and it must be taken seriously, said an expert in behavioral addiction at Nottingham Trent University. These are not sad people with serious personality (73) ; they are people who were fine before they found the Internet.

IAS is similar to other problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dream about the Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (74) to their partners about how much time they spend online; they (75) they could cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; although they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were made to stop using it.

66. A. blamed B. faulted C. mistaken D. accused

67. A. lead B. affect C. take D. cause

68. A. offer B. suggest C. recommend D. advise

69. A. worried B. worrying C. disappointing D. disappointed

70. A. gaining B. lending C. winning D. borrowing

71. A. habit B. custom C. manner D. routine

72. A. false B. imitation C. fake D. artificial

73. A. mistakes B. errors C. faults D. defects

74. A. betray B. deceive C. lie D. chest

75. A. want B. wish C. rather D. prefer

IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given (10 points).

76. Her acting in a play caused her to lose her voice. (performing)

→ She lost her voice because .

77. The Member of Parliament did everything he could do to exploit the situation. (advantage)

→ The Member of Parliament did everything he

78. They will want to know what you have in your suitcase. (asked)

→ You your suitcase.

79. Do you mind if I watch you while you are painting? (objection)

→ Do you you while you are painting?

80. They weren’t getting anywhere until John had a bright idea. (came)

→ They were getting a bright idea.

Part 2: The bar graph below shows the amount of carbon emissions in different countries during three different years. Write a paragraph of about 120 words describing the graph (15 points).

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