Đề thi chuyên môn Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 chuyên Lam Sơn Thanh Hóa năm học 2018-2019

     "Đề thi chính thức Kỳ thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Lam Sơn, Thanh Hóa môn Tiếng Anh (chuyên) năm học 2018-2019 có đáp án file word" trên website Tài liệu diệu kỳ là một nguồn tài liệu rất phù hợp cho học sinh ôn tập và luyện thi Tiếng Anh THPT. Đây là tài liệu mới nhất và được cập nhật liên tục trên website, đảm bảo chất lượng và cực hay để giúp các bạn học tập và nâng cao kỹ năng Tiếng Anh của mình.

     Tài liệu này có định dạng PDF, dễ dàng tải xuống và sử dụng để ôn tập và luyện thi. Bên cạnh đó, trang web còn cung cấp nhiều tài liệu khác phục vụ ôn luyện đội thi chuyên Anh và bồi dưỡng kỹ năng cho học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh THPT, các bạn có thể tham khảo thêm trên trang web.

     Từ khóa: Chuyên Anh Lam Sơn Thanh Hóa, Chuyên Anh Lam Sơn năm 2018, 2019, có đáp án, đề thi tuyển sinh chuyên Anh.

Tải xuống tài liệu


               THANH HÓA


    (Đề thi có 05 phần, gồm  06  trang)


                          Năm học 2018-2019

                          Môn thi: Tiếng Anh

       (Đề dùng cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Anh)

                 Ngày thi: 09 tháng 06 năm 2018

                         Thời gian: 150 phút

PART A: LISTENING (15 points)

I. Complete the form below. Use THE WORDS or NUMBERS for each answer (5 pts).

Surname:       Jones

First names:                   Louise  Cynthia

Address:       Apartment 1,       72  (1)________ Street, High bridge

Post code :                   (2)____________

Telephone:       9835 6712 (home)

       (3)____________ (work) 

Driver's licence number:       (4)_____________

Date of birth:                              Day: 25th, Month: (5)_____________,  Year: 1977

II. You will hear a boy called Thomas and a girl called Ruby talking about the poster for their school sports day. Listen and decide if the sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, choose the letter A for YES. If it is incorrect, choose the letter B for NO (5 pts).

        YES    NO

6. Thomas thinks a rough copy should be drawn on the poster first. A B

7. Thomas doesn’t want to change the last year’s poster size. A B

8. Ruby and Thomas agree that the poster should be in colour. A B

9. Thomas wants the school name to be in the top of the poster. A B

10. Thomas suggests they use the same photograph as last year. A B

III. You will hear an interview with Angela Morgan, who has recently flown around the world in a helicopter. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear 

(5 pts).

11. The main reason for Angela’s trip was to ________.          

A. make money for her business          

B. make money for other people          

C. have an exciting adventure.          

12. What does Angela say about her life?

A. She feels much older

B. She likes to be active and busy

C. She is lonely without her children

13. When Angela had the flying lesson, ___________.                     

A. her course lasted five months

B. her husband took lessons as well

C. she got to know her teacher well

14. During the trip, Angela and her teacher ___________.

A. did very little sightseeing

B. carried all the water they needed

C. had engine problems several times

15. What did Angela enjoy most about the trip?

A. Flying at night

B. Walking in the desert

C. Watching the changes in the scenery

PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (3 pts). 

16. A. hour B. honey C. honor D. honest

17. A. steady B. feature C. meat D. cheat

18. A. cough B. enough C. though D. rough

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (2 pts).

19. A. cognitive B. concentrate C. spectacular D. fabulous

20. A. memory B. charity C. tendency D. collection


I. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet 

(7 pts).

21. His roommate ( always enter) ______ the room without knocking first, which annoys him a lot. 

22. By the time you come here again, this palace ( build) _____. 

23. It is required that tax increases _______ (announce) in tomorrow’s budget. 

24. I (see)____ an aunt in Chicago a couple of months ago, but I cancelled the trip because she got ill.

25. They (not sack) ______ Joss. He was the most creative person in their team.

26. The chancellor is constantly receiving suggestions for simplifying the tax system. These 

(on occasion be) _________quite sensible. 

27. Lam is in the garden now. He ( water)_______ the flowers for 2 hours.

II. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet 

(8 pts).

28. A_________ is a health professional who provides information about the drugs their doctors have ordered for them.


29. The bathroom is dirty. I must get a bottle of toilet cleaner to _______the floor and the bath.


30. Increasingly, parents are continuing to ______ assist their children well into adulthood. 


31. Burning coal is an ______ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. 


32. The inquiry was set up after the _______ of a train near Leeds, the third accident on the line this year. 


33. The sun and the moon are often ________ in poetry.


34. Don’t worry about the volcano. It’s been ________ for years.


35. Julia Johnson and Mark Thomas, aged 19 and 20 _______, are taking part in the competition. 


III: The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from questions 36 to 40 ). Find out the mistakes and write the correct answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts)

Example: line 1: always is 🡪 is always













When you go on holiday, it always is a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something goes wrongly along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution which will help it have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for other, travel insurance is a way of earning money by making false claims against insurance companies. For example, some people pretend that they have had expensive equipment stole and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance companies a total of £ 50 million per year, but the cheats’ luck is about to run out. Thanks to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance if someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose to other people’s dishonesty.

IV. Choose the word/ phrase that best fits the gap in  each of the following sentences and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (10 pts).

41. The guidelines are an important tool for ________ awareness about current management thinking.

A. expressing B. raising C. lifting D. developing

42. Mary has only one eye, she lost ________ years ago.

A. another B. other C. the other D. others

43. John: “Shall we go out to choose a birthday gift for Emma?”

Peter: “__________”

A. Good idea! B. Happy birthday! C. Yes, please do! D. Are you sure?

44. ________, I was pleased it was over.

A. Though strange it was B. Despite it may sound strange

C. Strange though it may sound D. Even though being very strange

45. The child is so full of _______ that it’s tiring to be with him.

A. nuts B. peas C. berries D. beans 

46. Up ________ when it saw its master.

A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump

C. the dog jumped D. did jump the dog

47. My car was so old that I could only sell it for ________.

A. rubbish B. scrap C. debris D. waste

48. Nancy wanted a _________ cake for her birthday party, and her mother was trying to buy her one.

A. delicious chocolate round B. round delicious chocolate

C. round chocolate delicious D. delicious round chocolate

49. They own an original Picasso painting, ______ is over a million dollars.

A. of which the value         B. the value of which

C. which of the value D. of the value which

50. Please put ______ your cigarette because I am allergic to smoke.

A. out B. down C. up D. aside


PART D:  READING (30 points)

I. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

Our love of the fuel-burning car with its poisonous exhaust fumes has had a devastating effect (51)________ our environment and oil supplies. It is unlikely we will abandon our cars in large enough numbers to resolve this problem, so there is a pressing need to find an (52)________fuel. Many car companies are exploring ecofriendly energy sources. Hybrid cars were first developed in 1997 and they are likely to become more commonplace in the future. Hydrogen vehicles that use solar panels to extract hydrogen from water are likely to be (53)________in the near future. These vehicles (54)_______only water  (55)_______and so do not contribute to greenhouse gases. However, critics say that building a network of fueling stations and converting existing petrol stations to hydrogen will prove too (56)_______and will limit this vehicle’s potential. Nevertheless, countries (57)_______ as the US, Germany, Japan and Iceland already have ambitious hydrogen plans.

Others believe that biofuels are the future. These fuels are based on plant oils and so can be grown. The concept of using vegetable oil as a fuel (58)_______ back to 1895 when Dr Rudolf Diesel developed the first diesel engine to run on vegetable oil. He demonstrated his engine at the World Exhibition in Paris in 1900 and described an (59)_______ using peanut oil as fuel in his engine. In 1912, Diesel said, ‘The use of vegetable oil for engine fuels may seem negligible today. But such oils may become in the course of time as important as (60)_______ and the coal tar products of the present time.’

II. Read the text and choose the most suitable word from the ones given below to fill in each gap. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 pts)



There can be no doubt at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. However, most parents worry that children spend too much time browsing the Internet or playing computer games, hardly (61)________ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents want to know if these activities are harmful to their children. What should they do if their children spend hours (62)________ a computer screen?

Obviously, if children spend too much time being(63)________ in some games instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. It is a good idea if parents and children decide together how much use should be (64)_________ of the Internet, and the child should (65)_________ that it won’t interfere with homework. If the child does not (66)_________ to this arrangement, parent can take more drastic (67)_________. 

Any parent who is (68)_________ alarmed about a child’s behavior should make an appointment to (69)_________ the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of a computer screen does not (70)_________ affect a child’s performance at school. Even if a youngster seems obsessed with the computer, he or she is probably just going through a phase, and in a few months parents will have something else to worry about!

61. A. always B. ever C. never D. rarely

62. A. peeping at B. glancing at C. staring at D. seeing 

63. A. involved B. occupied C. taken D. absorbed

64. A. done B. had C. made D. taken 

65. A. promise B. assure C. secure D. claim

66. A. commit B. stick C. follow D. hold 

67. A. rules B. procedures C. steps D. regulations 

68. A. actually B. heavily C. seriously D. urgently 

69. A. speak B. discuss C. talk D. debate 

70. A. possibly B. consequently C. probably D. necessarily 

III. Read the text and choose the best answer to each question that follows. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (5 pts)

As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth century, it became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing agricultural hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as farmers from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs,  vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the townspeople. 

The High Street Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it reached from Front Street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation.

Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial cities. The fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example, were popular items.

Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the competition, retail merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were less than successful, the ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants' side, as increasing business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in addition to general stores selling a variety of goods.

71. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Philadelphia's agriculture importance.

B. Philadelphia's development as a marketing center.

C. The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia.

D. The administration of the city of Philadelphia.

72. The word "hinterland” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. tradition B. association C. production D. region

73. According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia were held _______.

A. on the same day as market says B. as often as possible

C. a couple of times a year D. whenever the government allowed it

74. The word "eradicate" in line 14 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. eliminate B. exploit C. organize D. operate

75. What does the author mean by stating in line 15 that "economic development was on the merchants' side"?

A. Merchants had a strong impact on economic expansion.

B. Economic forces allowed merchants to prosper.

C. Merchants had to work together to achieve economic independence.

D. Specialty shops near large markets were more likely to be economically successful.

IV. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable phrase from A – F to fill in each gap. There is one extra phrase that you don’t need to use. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts)

A. using cheaper book covers, as happened in Canada

B. saving an estimated 40,000 of them

C. strong enough to withstand a lifetime’s reading

D. used to make books

E. have consumed 6,5 million trees so far

F. have reached an estimated 7 million


The popular writer J.K Rowling has agreed to end her part in the destruction of the world’s forests by having her books printed on paper which is environmentally friendly. The multi-millionaire author, whose novels about a teenage wizard (76) ________, is one of a number of high-profile authors who have pledged their support for the environment by stipulating that only recycled paper should be used for their books. Techniques pioneered in Canada mean that, for the first time, paper made from such materials as office waste paper can be (77) _______. The Canadian edition of Rowling’s last book was printed without chopping down a single tree,(78) _________.

In the past, it was difficult to print books on recycled paper because the paper was not (79) _________. Technological advances mean that paper which is manufactured from waste material is now just as durable as paper made from virgin fiber in terms of quality and strength.

Despite the high cost of developing recycled paper that has the required strength and whiteness needed for books, there will not necessarily be a price rise for the reader. Instead, publishers are likely to compensate for the higher paper cost by (80) ________.

PART E: WRITING  (20 points)

I. Rewrite each of the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same (5 pts).

81. It’s pity you told everyone what we were up to.

🡪 I’d rather _______________________________________________________________.

82. I have frequently made stupid mistakes like that.

🡪 Many’s  ________________________________________________________________.

83. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home.

🡪 Not until________________________________________________________________. 

84. I have little confidence that he will be able to do the job.

🡪 I have serious ____________________________________________________________.

85. Success depends on hard work.

🡪 The harder ______________________________________________________________. 

II. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the given word so that it keeps the same meaning (5 pts).

86. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test. ( SURPRISE)

🡪 It came __________________________________________________________________.

87. Many people believe that Edison has the ability to become the world judo champion. (CAPABLE)

🡪 Edison __________________________________________________________________.

88. It was Peter who pointed the mistake out to me. (ATTENTION)

🡪 It was ___________________________________________________________________.

89. When I heard her speak, it affected me profoundly. (IMPACT)

🡪 When I __________________________________________________________________. 

90. If your order is delayed, we will contact you. (DELAY).

🡪 Should __________________________________________________________________. 

III. Paragraph writing (10 pts).

What are the benefits of getting a job in foreign countries?

Write a paragraph about 120-150 words using your own reasons and any relevant examples to justify your answer.

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        Họ và tên thí sinh ....................................................... SBD ........................

       Chữ ký của giám thị 1 .............................       Chữ ký của giám thị 2 ......................


             THANH HÓA

               (Gồm 03 trang)


                       Năm học 2018-2019

                          Môn thi: Tiếng Anh

          (Dùng cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Anh)

                Ngày thi: 09 tháng 06 năm 2018

                     Thời gian:150 phút

PART A: LISTENING (15 points)

I. Complete the form below. Use THE WORDS or NUMBERS for each answer (5 pts):

1. Black     2. 2085 3. 94561309      4. 2020 BD 5. July

II. You will hear a boy called Thomas and a girl called Ruby talking about the poster for their school sports day. Listen and decide if the sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, choose the letter A for YES. If it is incorrect, choose the letter B for NO (5 pts):

6. A 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. B

III. You will hear an interview with Angela Morgan, who has recently flown around the world in a helicopter. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear (5 pts):

11. B 12. B 13. C 14.  A 15. C

PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)

I. Pronunciation (3 points)

16. B 17. A 18. C

II. Stress (2 points)

19. C 20. D


I. Verb form (7 pts)

21. is always entering/ is ….. entering

22. will have been built

23. (should) be announced

24. was going to see

25. shouldn’t have sacked

26. have on occasion been/ have …. been

27. has been watering

II. Word formation (8 pts)

28. pharmacist

29. disinfect 

30. financially

31. uneconomical

32. derailment

33. personified

34. inactive

35. respectively

III. Error identification (5 pts)

36. line 2: wrongly 🡪 wrong

37. line 4: it 🡪 them

38. line 5: other 🡪 others

39. line 7: stole 🡪 stolen

40. line 11: to other people’s dishonesty 🡪 for other people’s dishonesty

IV. Multiple choice (10 points)

41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. D

46. A 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. A

PART D:  READING (30 points)

I. Cloze reading (10 points)

51. on

52. alternative/ecofriendly

53. available

54. emit

55. vapor

56. costly

57. such

58. dates

59. experiment

60. petroleum

II. Gap filling (10 points) 

61. B


63. D

64. C

65. A

66. B

67. C

68. C

69. B

70. D

III. Reading comprehension 1 (5 points)

71. B

72. D

73. C

74. A 

75. B

IV.  Reading comprehension 2 ( 5 points)

76. E

77. D

78. B

79. C 

80. A 

PART E: WRITING  (20 points)

I. Rewriting 1 (5 pts)

81. I’d rather you hadn’t told everyone what we were up to.

82. Many’s the time I have made stupid mistakes like that. 

83. Not until I left home could I realize how important the family is.

84. I have serious doubts about his ability to do the job.

85. The harder you work, the more success you have/achieve/gain.

or The harder you work, the more successful you are/become.

II. Rewriting 2 (5 pts)

86. It came as no surprise to me that Harry had failed his driving test.

87. Edison is believed to be capable of becoming the world judo champion.

88. It was Peter who drew my attention to the mistake.

89. When I heard her speak, it made a profound impact on me.

90. Should there be a/any delay to your order, we will contact you.

III. Paragraph writing (10 pts)

- If the contents are not relevant, the paragraph IS NOT COUNTED.

- If the contents are relevant, ASSESS in accordance with this scale 




( 1 point)

- Is a solid unit with 3 parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence).

- Paragraph should be indented only in the first line.

- If Ss’ writing looks like an essay, subtract 0.5 point.

- Number of words is about 120-150. Less than 120 words or more than 150 words, subtract 0.3 point


(2 points)

- Topic sentence: Ss must mention that they will talk about benefits. 

- There should be 2 or 3 supporting sentences and examples or explanations for each supporting idea. 

- Concluding sentence(s): Ss can summarize the main ideas in supporting sentences, or paraphrase the topic sentence.


(1 point)

- Topic sentence and supporting sentences must be relevant

- Examples/explanations must be relevant to the supporting idea that they support. 


(1 point)

- If Ss’ writing has a good use of linking words -> 0.5 point

- If Ss’ writing has a flexible use of unfamiliar transitional signals ->1 point.

Grammar and vocabulary

(3 points)

- If Ss’ writing is free of grammatical mistakes and spelling mistakes ->2 points. 

- If Ss’ writing has a wide range of sentence patterns, wide range of vocabulary and less common vocabulary ->3 points.

- Subtract 0.25 point for one mistake.


(2 points)

The writing is convincing. 

    * Lưu ý:

- Tổng điểm toàn bài là 100 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 1 điểm.

- Quy đổi điểm bài thi về thang điểm 10.

                           Điểm bài thi =

Tổng số câu đúng


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