Sở GD&ĐT Thái Nguyên đã tổ chức kỳ thi chọn HSG cấp tỉnh lớp 12 năm 2023 vào ngày 9/11 thu hút sự tham gia của hơn 2.200 học sinh đến từ các trường THPT trên địa bàn tỉnh với 11 môn thi. Để giúp các bạn học sinh có cái nhìn tổng quan nhất về Đề học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh Thái Nguyên Tiếng Anh 12 năm 2022-2023, Tài liệu diệu kỳ đã tổng hợp đầy đủ đáp án chi tiết và cung cấp file nghe, word/pdf miễn phí.
Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh cấp tỉnh Thái Nguyên năm 2022-2023 bao gồm 4 phần chính: nghe, ngữ pháp, đọc hiểu và viết. Để đạt kết quả cao, bạn cần luyện tập đều đặn, làm quen với nhiều dạng bài tập khác nhau và đặc biệt chú ý đến kỹ năng viết.
Section One: Listening (20 points)
- Part 1: Fill in the blanks based on the recording (10 blanks).
- Part 2: Multiple choice questions (10 questions).

Đề học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh Thái Nguyên Tiếng Anh - I. Listening (20 points)
Section Two: Lexico-Grammar (25 points)
- Part I: Choose the correct answer from multiple choices (15 questions).
- Part II: Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the given words (10 questions).

Đề học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh Thái Nguyên Tiếng Anh - II. Lexico-Grammar (25 points)
Section Three: Reading (35 points)
- Part I: Fill in the blanks in the passage with one suitable word (10 blanks).
- Part II: Answer multiple choice questions about a passage (10 questions).
- Part III: Multiple choice questions to complete a passage (10 questions).
- Part IV: Match extracts to gaps in a passage (5 gaps).

Đề học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh Thái Nguyên Tiếng Anh - III. Reading (35 points)
Section Four: Writing (20 points)
- Part I: Sentence transformation (5 sentences).
- Part II: Summary of a bar chart (5 points).
- Part III: Write an essay on the importance of games for both children and adults (200-250 words).

Đề học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh Thái Nguyên Tiếng Anh - IV. Writing (20 points)
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Bạn là học sinh lớp 12 ở Thái Nguyên và đang tìm kiếm đáp án chi tiết cho đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh cấp tỉnh năm 2022-2023? Còn chờ gì nữa, tải ngay tài liệu tại đường link bên dưới để cùng nhau ôn tập nhé!
Để đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi, bạn nên làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi trước, đừng quên luyện tập thường xuyên với các dạng bài tập tương tự và tham khảo thêm các tài liệu HSG THPT, Chuyên Anh, Olympic 30 tháng 4, Duyên Hải Bắc Bộ…
Tài liệu diệu kỳ chúc bạn thành công!
Trích dẫn nội dung đề thi Tiếng Anh 12 Thái Nguyên
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THÁI NGUYÊN
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 13 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 12
Ngày thi: 09/11/2022
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Đề thi này gồm 13 trang được đánh số từ 1-10. Thí sinh kiểm tra số trang trước khi làm bài.
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (20 POINTS)
Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:
- Nội dung nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: Listen to the recording and complete the notes below with ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
FAMILY EXCURSIONS
Cruise on a lake
• Travel on an old steamship (Example)
• Can take photos of the (1) __________ that surround the lake
Farm visit
• Children can help feed the sheep
• Visit can include a 40-minute ride on a (2) __________
• Visitors can walk in the farm’s (3) __________ by the lake
• (4) __________ is available at extra cost
Cycling trips
• Cyclists explore the Back Road
• A (5) __________ is provided
• Only suitable for cyclists who have some (6) __________
o Bikes can be hired from (7) __________ (near the Cruise Ship Terminal)
• Cyclists need:
o A repair kit
o Food and drink
o A (8) __________ (can be hired)
• There are no (9) __________ or accommodation in the area
Cost
• Total cost for whole family of cruise and farm visit: (10) $ __________
Part 2: Listen to the recording and choose the best answer.
11-12. What are the TWO awards Mitchford University has won?
A. Research Excellence
B. Online University
C. University of the Year
D. Distance Education
E. Staff Excellence
13-17. Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D
13. Postgraduate students at Mitchford University receive help only __________.
A. if they have families
B. if they are new students
C. if they are overseas students
D. if they are first-year students
14. Student Administration is responsible for __________.
A. enrolments
B. collection of student fees
C. exam results
D. all class timetables
15. Student fees are used __________.
A. to purchase new music
B. for movie nights
C. to pay for some class excursions
D. to host special charity dinners
16. Once a student is accepted into Mitchford, the application __________.
A. is sent to the registrar’s office
B. goes to Student Administration
C. goes to the testing department
D. is checked for a good academic record
17. Notification of acceptance takes place __________.
A. in late June
B. in early April
C. in late May
D. in early June
18-20. Choose THREE letters A-G. What are the THREE major ways applications can be delayed?
A. incorrect postage
B. sending application to Post Office Box
C. not including academic records
D. forgetting a forwarding address
E. sending the application to the wrong address
F. forgetting to include payment
G. paying only $45.00
SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (25 POINTS)
I. Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
21. Many people love routine jobs which promise __________.
A. security B. sanguineness C. vacancy D. registration
22. As a model, you have to __________ the art of walking in high heels.
A. master B. grasp C. study D. gain
23. They are bringing in __________ changes to the way the office is run.
A. large B. radical C. deep D. immense
24. Some people feel that television should give less __________ to sport.
A. programmes B. coverage C. concern D. involvements
25. The interviewees are supposed to give their answers to the job offers __________.
A. on the spot B. all in all C. beyond the joke D. within reach
26. We’ve bought some __________ chairs for the garden so that they are easy to store away.
A. adapting B. adjusting C. bending D. folding
27. I don’t think she can get her message __________ to the students. She seems too nervous.
A. across B. around C. out D. over
28. There are __________ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. a great many D. quite a lot
29. One of the first exercises in math class is __________ measure the radius of a circle.
A. to learn and B. to learn how to C. learning to D. learn to
30. We were shocked to hear the news of your __________.
A. having fired B. being fired C. having been fired D. to have been fired
31. __________ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
32. Politicians should never lose __________ of the needs of the people they represent.
A. view B. sight C. regard D. prospect
33. Doctors advise people who are deficient __________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
34. The computer has dramatically affected __________ photographic lenses are constructed.
A. is the way B. that the way C. which way do D. the way
35. Athletes need to have a higher __________ of protein and vitamins in order to stay healthy.
A. intake B. increase C. infection D. production
II. Write the correct FORM for each bracketed word in the numbered space provided.
36. At the end of the concert, the audience gave the young pianist a __________ ovation. (stand)
37. The university has __________ the use of dictionaries during language examinations. (author)
38. A dilemma is a situation where a difficult choice has to be made between two, sometimes unpleasant, __________. (alternate)
39. It is very difficult to find Mrs. Burton’s shop, for it was __________ from all others in the street. (distinguish)
40. When we arrived at the hotel, we were amazed at the __________ hospitality of the fans. (compare)
41. The teacher’s criticism has __________ Tom’s interest in learning. (die)
42. The staff’s bad behavior has brought __________ to the whole company. (graceful)
43. One of the __________ of this car is its high petrol consumption. (draw)
44. Traditional __________ are a good source of fun and entertainment. (celebrate)
45. The public were angry with the Minister’s __________ to tell the truth about the bribery. (refuse)
SECTION THREE: READING. (35 POINTS)
I. Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
Enjoy the benefits of stress!
Are you looking forward to another busy week? You should be according to some experts. They argue that the stress encountered in our daily lives is not only good for us, but essential to survival. They say that the response to (46) __________, which creates a chemical called adrenalin, helps the mind and body to act quickly (47) __________ emergencies. Animals and human beings use it to meet the hostile conditions which exist on the planet.
Whilst nobody denies the pressures of everyday life, what is surprising is that we are yet to develop successful ways of dealing with them. (48) __________ the experts consider the current strategies to be inadequate and often dangerous. They believe that (49) __________ of trying to manage our response to stress with drugs or relaxation techniques, we must exploit it. Apparently, research shows that people (50) __________ create conditions of stress for (51) __________ by doing exciting and risky sports or looking for challenges, cope much better with life’s problems. Activities of this type have been shown to create a lot of emotion; people may actually cry or feel extremely uncomfortable. But there is a point (52) __________ which they realize they have succeeded and know that it was a positive experience. This is because we learn through challenge and difficulty. That’s (53) __________ we get our wisdom. Few of us, unfortunately, understand this fact. For example, many people believe they (54) __________ from stress at work and take time off as a result. Yet it has been found in some companies that by far (55) __________ healthiest people are those with the most responsibility. So next time you’re in a stressful situation, just remember that it will be a positive learning experience and could also benefit your health!
II. Read the following passage. For question 56-60, choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Day after day we hear about how anthropogenic development is causing global warming. According to an increasingly vocal minority, however, we should be asking ourselves how much of this is media hype and how much is based on real evidence. It seems, as so often is the case that it depends on which expert you listen to, or which statistics you study.
Yes, it is true that there is a mass of evidence to indicate that the world is getting warmer, with one of the world’s leading weather predictors stating that air temperatures have shown an increase of just under half a degree Celsius since the beginning of the twentieth century. And while this may not sound like anything worth losing sleep over, the international press would have us believe that the consequences could be devastating. Other experts, however, are of the opinion that what we are seeing is just part of a natural upward and downward swing that has always been part of the cycle of global weather. An analysis of the views of major meteorologists in the United States showed that less than 20% of them believed that any change in temperature over the last hundred years was our own fault - the rest attributed it to natural cyclical changes.
There is, of course, no denying that we are still at a very early stage in understanding weather. The effects of such variables as rainfall, cloud formation, the seas and oceans, gases such as methane and ozone, or even solar energy are still not really understood, and therefore the predictions that we make using them cannot always be relied on. Dr. James Hansen, in 1988, was predicting that the likely effects of global warming would be a raising of world temperature which would have disastrous consequences for mankind: “a strong cause and effect relationship between the current climate and human alteration of the atmosphere”. He has now gone on record as stating that using artificial models of climate as a way of predicting change is all but impossible. In fact, he now believes that, rather than getting hotter, our planet is getting greener as a result of the carbon dioxide increase, with the prospect of increasing vegetation in areas which in recent history have been frozen wastelands.
In fact, there is some evidence to suggest that as our computer-based weather models have become more sophisticated, the predicted rises in temperature have been cut back. In addition, if we look at the much-reported rise in global temperature over the last century, a close analysis reveals that the lion’s share of that increase, almost three quarters in total, occurred before man began to ‘poison’ his world with industrial processes and the accompanying greenhouse gas emissions in the second half of the twentieth century.
So should we pay any attention to those stories that scream out at us from billboards and television news headlines, claiming that man, with his inexhaustible dependence on oil-based machinery and ever more sophisticated forms of transport is creating a nightmare level of ‘greenhouse gas emissions’, poisoning his environment and ripping open the ozone layer? Doubters point to scientific evidence, which can prove that, of all the greenhouse gases, only two percent come from man-made sources, the rest resulting from natural emissions.
Who, then, to believe: the environmentalist exhorting us to leave the car at home, to buy reusable products packaged in recycled paper and to plant trees in our backyard? Or the sceptics, including, of course, a lot of big businesses who have most to lose, when they tell us that we are making a mountain out of a molehill? And my own opinion? The jury’s still out as far as I am concerned!
56. The author __________.
A. believes that man is causing global warming
B. believes that global warming is a natural process
C. is sure what the causes of global warming are
D. does not say what he believes the causes of global warming are
57. As to the cause of global warming, the author believes that __________.
A. occasionally the facts depend on who you are talking to
B. the media is not interested in this problem
C. the consequences are far more serious than we think
D. greenhouse gases are created by natural emissions
58. More than 80% of the top meteorologists in the United States are of the opinion that __________.
A. global warming should make us lose sleep
B. global warming is not the result of natural cyclical changes but man-made
C. the consequences of global warming will be devastating
D. global warming is not man-made, but the result of natural cyclical changes
59. Our understanding of weather __________.
A. leads to reliable predictions
B. is variable
C. cannot be denied
D. is not very developed yet
60. Currently, Dr. James Hansen’s beliefs include the fact that __________.
A. it is nearly impossible to predict weather change using artificial models
B. the consequences of global warming would be disastrous for mankind
C. there is a significant link between the climate now, and man’s changing of the atmosphere
D. Earth is getting colder
For questions 61-65, write in the corresponding numbered boxes with YES, NO, or NOT GIVEN:
YES if the statement agrees with the information in the passage.
NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the passage.
61. At the same time that computer-based weather models have become more sophisticated, weather forecasters have become more expert.
62. Most of the increase in global temperature happened in the second half of the twentieth century.
63. The media wants us to blame ourselves for global warming.
64. The media encourages the public to use environmentally friendly vehicles, such as electric cars to combat global warming.
65. Many big businesses are on the side of the sceptics as regards the cause of global warming.
III. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the boxes provided.
WHALING
Rock carvings suggest that Stone Age people were hunting whales for food as early as 2200 B.C. Such (66) __________ hunting is still practiced today in a number of (67) __________ including the Inuit people of Greenland and North America. Whaling became big business from the seventh century as the (68) __________ for whalebone and whale oil rose, and humpback and sperm whales were hunted in (69) __________ large numbers. But just as stocks of these species began to fall, the explosive harpoon-gun was (70) __________. This weapon, together with the development of steam-power ships, (71) __________ the whalers to hunt the fast-moving fin and blue whales.
In 1905 the whaling (72) __________ moved to the waters of Antarctica. The introduction of massive factory ships enabled the whales to be processed at sea. As a result, the blue whale had (73) __________ disappeared by the 1950s. In 1946 the International Whaling Commission was established to maintain the declining whale populations. Quotas were (74) __________ but these were often (75) __________ and numbers continued to fall. Hunting of many species continued until 1986 when the IWC finally responded to international pressure and a ban on commercial whaling was introduced.
66. A. survival B. essential C. basic D. subsistence
67. A. groups B. societies C. races D. nationalities
68. A. demand B. desire C. request D. reliance
69. A. repeatedly B. frequently C. continually D. increasingly
70. A. invented B. discovered C. assembled D. applied
71. A. managed B. employed C. enabled D. empowered
72. A. lines B. troops C. staff D. fleets
73. A. virtually B. possibly C. uniquely D. commonly
74. A. made B. set C. placed D. done
75. A. refused B. denied C. ignored D. exempted
IV. There are five extracts which have been removed from the following passage. Put an extract from A-G in the correct gap 76-80 to complete the passage. There are two extracts you’re not going to need. Write your answers in the space provided.
Children between the ages of 4 and 12 are the most common sufferers of sleepwalking, however, (76) __________, somnambulism, as it is observed in adults, increases in severity and frequency with age. It is reported that more boys sleepwalk than girls and it is between the ages of 11 and 12 that the most number of cases is reported. Also, many children tend to grow out of it and because of this, it is surmised (77) __________ that may relate to the physiology of the younger body and mind that does not relate to adulthood.
Sleepwalking also seems to occur with more intensity or frequency in a person (78) __________ not remember the incident at all. It is also a common misconception that it is dangerous to wake a sleepwalker. It is, in fact, more dangerous to not wake a sleepwalker. This is due to the actions that can be done by a sleepwalker. A person might drive a car, walk out into traffic, try cooking, etc. All of these actions are highly dangerous to a person (79) __________ what they are doing.
This disorder can be just a mild annoyance to some but can also be a life-altering disorder to others. Sleepwalking is more serious than aggressive so the danger lies more with self-injury than injuries to others. Sleepwalkers are not allowed in the Armed Services at least partly due to the damage they can cause themselves and also partly to the fact (80) __________. Treatments can range from relaxation techniques to anti-depressant medications.
A. that there are other sources for sleepwalking
B. who is sleep-deprived and a sleepwalker often will
C. that advise women to exercise for a good night’s sleep
D. while pre-adolescents make up the larger number
E. who want to have an early night sleep
F. that they are around dangerous equipment
G. who is asleep and unaware of
SECTION FOUR: WRITING. (20 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (81-85 points)
Example: We expect he will arrive by nine o’clock.
=> He is __________.
Answer: is expected to arrive by nine o’clock.
81. The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the venue.
=> It was only ______________________________________________________________________________
82. We only came to this restaurant because you insisted that we did so.
=> It was at ________________________________________________________________________________
83. Arguing with her won’t get you anywhere.
=> It won’t do ______________________________________________________________________________
84. The thief must have come in through the window.
=> The thief almost __________________________________________________________________________
85. What put me off the idea was simply how expensive it was going to be.
=> The sheer _______________________________________________________________________________
II. The bar chart below shows the passenger kilometers traveled by different means of transport in the UK in 1990 and 2000.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words. (86-90 points)
III. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
“Games are as important for children as they are for adults.”
Write an essay (about 200 to 250 words) to express your personal point of view. (91-100 points)
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