Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hùng Vương, Phú Thọ môn Tiếng Anh (Chuyên) năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án

Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hùng Vương, Phú Thọ môn Tiếng Anh (Chuyên) năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trang 1

Đáp án chính thức và Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hùng Vương, Phú Thọ môn Tiếng Anh (Chuyên) năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án được Tài liệu diệu kỳ cập nhật để học sinh và phụ huynh tham khảo. Tài liệu có thể tải xuống ở định dạng file pdf và word. Bài thi môn chuyên Tiếng Anh tại tỉnh Phú Thọ gồm 8 trang, cụ thể có 5 phần chính: I. Listening (20 pts); II. Phonetics (10 pts); III. Lexico-Grammar (70 pts); IV. Reading (60 pts) và Writing (40 pts). Sau đó tổng điểm quy về thang điểm 20.

Để có tâm lý tự tin và kiến thức vững vàng cho Kỳ thi TS vào lớp 10 năm học 2024-2025 sắp tới. Các em học sinh có thể download ngay toàn bộ Đề thi & Đáp án chính thức tại đường dẫn phía dưới để ôn tập và làm quen các dạng bài thường gặp trong đề thi Chuyên Anh tại tỉnh Phú Thọ, cũng như tại các tỉnh/TP khác.

Theo thông tin từ Sở GD&ĐT Phú Thọ, Kỳ thi Tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 năm 2023 vẫn giữ ổn định như các năm trước. Thí sinh dự thi vào lớp 10 các trường THPT không chuyên và các trường PTDTNT thi các môn: Toán, Ngữ văn, Tiếng Anh. Thí sinh dự thi vào các lớp chuyên của Trường THPT Chuyên Hùng Vương thi các môn: Toán, Ngữ văn, Tiếng Anh và môn chuyên (do Sở GD&ĐT quy định).

Tải xuống: Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hùng Vương, Phú Thọ môn Tiếng Anh (Chuyên) năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án




(Đáp án có 03 trang)


NĂM HỌC 2022-2023


Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

SECTION 1: LISTENING (20 points)

2 điểm/câu đúng


1 B

2 C

3 B

4 A

5 C

II. 1 (forward) planning

2 drawings

3 official permission

4 sudden storms

5 magazines

SECTION 2: PHONETICS (10 points)

2 điểm/câu đúng

III. & IV. 1 C

2 B

3 B

4 A

5 D


2 điểm/câu đúng

V. & VI. 1 B

2 A

3 C

4 B

5 B

6 D

7 C

8 B

9 A

10 D

11 D

12 A

13 B

14 B

15 C

16 B

17 D

18 A

19 A

20 B

21 D

22 B

23 B

24 A

25 D

26 D

27 C

28 B

29 A

30 A

31 A

32 B

33 D

34 C

35 D

SECTION 4: READING (60 points)

2 điểm/câu đúng

VII. 1 A

2 D

3 D

4 C

5 A

6 C

7 C

8 A

9 B

10 B


2 C

3 D

4 C

5 C

6 B

7 B

8 A

9 C

10 A

IX. 1 show

2 an

3 motion

4 will/can

5 exactly/precisely

6 from/on/over

7 However/Nevertheless/Nonetheless/Yet/Still

8 what

9 instead

10 whose

SECTION 5: WRITING (40 points)

2 điểm/câu đúng; XII: 20 điểm

X. 1 On her arrival/arriving at the airport, Thuy Tien, Miss Grand was warmly welcome by her fans.

2 But for Laurence’s recommendation(s), I wouldn’t have been given a promotion/been promoted.

But for the/a recommendation of/from Laurence, I wouldn’t have been given a promotion/been promoted.

But for the recommendation(s) of/from Laurence, I wouldn’t have been given a promotion/been promoted.

3 So intense was the hatred for/of Frank’s new policies that the staff went on strike.

4 I’m on the point of giving up this diet because it’s not working at all.

5 Julia soon pulled herself together and explained/accounted for her problem.

Julia soon pulled herself together and gave/offered/provided an explanation for/of her problem.

XI. 1 Without her interference, everything would have gone/run smoothly.

2 Her prolonged absence brought it home to him (that) how much he cared for her.

3 In his effort/attempt to ingratiate himself with his father-in-law, no expense would be spared (by him).

4 It is of no/little consequence to me which make of car you choose.

5 I’m not in favor of people who often talk the hind leg(s) off a donkey.

XII. Paragraph writing.

In about 150 words, write a paragraph about qualities you think a person needs to live in harmony in an extended family. 

Suggested marking criteria: 

1. Organization: (3 points) 

- Paragraph has three parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence)

- The idea is parallel.

2. Content, coherence and cohesion: (12 points) 

- Topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea. 

- Supporting sentences: support directly the main idea stated in the topic sentence and provide logical, persuasive examples. 

- Concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas/ restates the topic sentence and gives personal opinion. 

- The communicating intentions are expressed sufficiently and effectively. 

- Appropriate transition signals. 

3. Language use and accuracy: (5 points) 

- A variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language for lower -secondary school students. 

- Good use and control of grammatical structures. 

- Correct use of punctuation and spelling. 

- Legible handwriting. 

Penalty mark: If the whole paragraph is off topic, it gets no mark. 

Tổng điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm. Quy về thang điểm 20 (200:10 = 20)

Nội dung đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hùng Vương, Phú Thọ môn Tiếng Anh (Chuyên) năm học 2022-2023:




(Đề thi có 08 trang)


NĂM HỌC 2022-2023


Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Chú ý:

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này.

- Toàn bộ nội dung hướng dẫn cho phần NGHE đã có trong CD.

SECTION 1: LISTENING (20 points)

I. Listen to conversation and choose A, B or C which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the numbered box. (10 points)

1. Which was NOT mentioned as part of the purpose of the English Language Center?

A. To help international students prepare to enter institutions of higher learning.

B. To provide work opportunities for graduating students in the community.

C. To teach students how to use English in their daily lives and at work.

2. What is one course taught at the English Language Center?

A. US Culture B. TOEFL C. Business English

3. If the Fall semester begins on August 29th, one should apply to the program by __________.

A. May 29th B. June 29th C. July 29th 

4. What is the tuition for a full-time student?

A. $2,030 B. $2,300 C. $2,013

5. Which one was NOT mentioned as part of the application packet a student must send to the center?

A. A sponsorship form B. A bank statement C. The student’s I-20

II. You will hear a marine wildlife photographer called Bruce Hind talking about his work. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each blank. Write your answers in the numbered box. (10 points)


Bruce says that (1) __________ is the most important aspect of his work. Before going on a trip, Bruce does (2) __________ of the photographs he hopes to take. Knowing the type of photographs he wants to take helps Bruce to choose the right equipment. Bruce disagrees with people who say his way of taking photographs is not creative. It’s important to find out whether (3) __________ is needed to photograph in a particular place. Bruce says that (4) __________ have spoiled several promising shots. When at sea, Bruce generally keeps his cameras in a plastic food container. He is particularly pleased when his photographs appear in (5) __________.

SECTION 2: PHONETICS (10 points)

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by writing your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box. (6 points)

1. A. subtle B. plumber C. bombard D. combing

2. A. woolen B. foodie C. footage D. hooker

3. A. menace B. furnace C. preface D. necklace

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others by writing A, B, C or D in the numbered box. (4 points)

4. A. committee B. refugee C. referee D. attendee

5. A. geographical B. international C. undergraduate D. obligatory


1. Having walked through the swamps for miles, __________.

A. plasters and drugs were found to cure the injured pilgrims

B. the pilgrims were relieved to see lit houses in the distance

C. shrubs prevented pilgrims from getting to their destination

D. there was not even a drop of water in the pilgrims’ flasks

2. Mr. and Mrs. Brown __________ their golden anniversary at the local church last Sunday, but all of a sudden, a strong earthquake occurred the very morning, which destroyed their plan.

A. were going to hold B. would be holding C. was just holding D. had held

3. We took CDs with us to our gatherings. Actually, we __________ that, for there was no CD player to play them on.

A. mustn’t have done B. didn’t have to do C. needn’t have done D. couldn’t have done

4. That ChatGPT is so intelligent an AI that it can be able to perform well nearly all tasks __________ us worried about our future jobs.

A. make B. makes C. are making D. made

5. Tom and James are talking about one of their friends.

Tom: “Why didn’t she say anything?”

James: “__________ I have yet to talk to her.”

A. That’s not fair. B. Search me! C. Don’t mention it. D. Cut it off.

6. Had Lam read unit 7 “Recipes and eating habits” before his class, he __________ unruffled when being asked questions by his English teacher now.

A. wouldn’t feel B. wouldn’t have felt C. would have felt D. would feel

7. Not only Jane’s friends but also her sister __________ in completely with her story of having been robbed, and they all lent her some money when being asked for.

A. has been taken B. have been taken C. was taken D. were taken

8. The outback area of this city is a far cry from its __________ jungle, through which we have hacked our way.

A. lush primeval large B. lush large primeval

C. primeval lush large D. large lush primeval

9. __________ as the representative at the conference, she felt extremely proud of herself.

A. Having been chosen B. Having chosen C. To have been chosen D. On choosing

10. Her condition after the operation for appendicitis was described as __________, which made her family so worried.

A. dissatisfied B. satisfied C. satisfactory D. unsatisfactory

11. Some working parents __________ their being absent all day by giving their children money or presents.

A. make out B. make out of C. make up D. make up for

12. The disputes between TPT Groups and their manager were thought to be settled, but the situation has become more confusing __________.

A. of late B. for now C. in a while D. shortly

13. They were planning to get married last year, and then the war broke out in their home country Ukraine and __________.

A. interfered B. intervened C. involved D. interacted

14. Forest Gump’s endless courage and efforts not only __________ his followers but also moved his rivals as well.

A. depressed B. inspired C. overlooked D. rejected

15. He managed to attract other drivers’ attention at the scene of the accident by turning on his __________ lights. They, therefore, took the injured to hospital timely.

A. danger B. risk C. hazard D. peril

16. Every year, thousands of Vietnamese people and foreigners travel to Ba Dinh Square in Hanoi Capital to __________ the President Ho Chi Minh, the first president of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam.

A. pay court to B. pay homage to C. pay attention to D. pay a price for

17. The first round of interviews only really serves to __________ the very weakest of applicants.

A. tide over B. beat about C. bark out D. weed out

18. The hospital staff pulled out all the __________ to make sure the children had a wonderful day.

A. stops B. plugs C. barricades D. roadblocks

19. Normally, when he was late, he gave a pathetic excuse, but not this time, what he said had a __________ of truth about it.

A. ring B. figment C. glimmer D. shred

20. Following the crime in Bradford High Street last Saturday afternoon, the police are checking __________ anyone who was there at the time.

A. in for B. up on C. out of D. over to

21. I was hungry, and that meal was absolutely delicious! It was just what the __________ ordered.

A. scientist B. expert C. healer D. doctor

22. If there is new evidence that proves his innocence, it is likely that the authorities will __________ him from jail.

A. relieve B. release C. rehabilitate D. remove

23. There is a great deal of pressure in the newspaper industry; editors might work a 12-hour day with no __________.

A. come-down B. let-up C. crackdown D. let-down

24. I was __________ surprised by the excellent customer service. That company really cares about its customers.

A. pleasantly B. totally C. sharply D. seriously

25. If you are going to town, keep your eyes __________ for that book I was telling you about.

A. clean B. wide C. fresh D. peeled

26. It’s one of the worst books I’ve ever read. Its only redeeming __________ is that it’s quite short.

A. factor B. element C. aspect D. feature

27. Tom’s boss doesn’t want him to __________ a habit of using the office phone for personal calls.

A. create B. do C. make D. increase

28. Because of an unfortunate __________, your order was not dispatched by the date requested.

A. hindrance B. oversight C. negligence D. transgression

Write your answer (A, B, C, or D in the numbered box to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following sentence.

29. The evening would have been more enjoyable if all the extraneous activities had been dropped from the program

A. irrelevant B. excessive C. overextended D. exceptional

Write your answer (A, B, C, or D in the numbered box to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following sentence.

30. The organizers and two teams had expected that the stadium would be full of spectators, but to their disappointment, they came in twos and threes.

A. they came in abundance B. they came with two or three friends

C. they came in groups of two or three D. quite a few of spectators came

VI. Identify the mistake in each sentence by writing your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box. (10 points)

31. A deadly hush fell over the board of directors after the Chairman made the announcement that the company was on the verge of bankruptcy.

A. deadly B. board of directors C. made D. on the verge

32. The duties of the secretary are to make the minutes, to mail the correspondence, and to call the members before meetings. 

A. duties B. are to make C. the D. meetings

33. Genetic engineering is helping researchers unravel the mysteries of previously incurable diseases so that they get to its root causes and find cures.

A. is helping B. previously C. so that D. its

34. Speaking to reporters after the results were announced, he laughed at a question about running again in another six years.

A. Speaking to B. were announced C. laughed at D. in

35. The race also included Ksenia Sobchak, a formal reality TV host and a nationalist, Vladimir Zhirinovsky - they got less than 2% and about 6% respectably.

A. included B. reality TV host C. less than D. respectably

SECTION 4: READING (60 points)

VII. Read the following passage and write your answers A, B, C, or D in the numbered box to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 1 to 10. (20 points)

Gerard Mercator: The Man Who Mapped the Planet 

When Gerard Mercator was born in 1512, the geography of the globe still (1) __________ a mystery. It was unclear whether America was part of Asia, if there was a vast (2) __________ of sea at the top of the world or if Australia was connected to Antarctica. 

Mercator’s childhood was spent chiefly in Rupelmonde, a Flemish trading town on the river, and it was here that his geographical imagination was (3) __________ by the ships which passed to and from the rest of the world. Alongside imagination, he developed two very different skills. The first was the ability to gather, (4) __________ and co-ordinate the geographical information provided by explorers and sailors who frequented the margins of the known. He also had to be able to imagine himself suspended (5) __________ the heavens, to achieve the visionary perspective of gods in the skies, gazing down on the world. 

The main reason why Mercator’s name is familiar to us is because of the Mercator Projection: the solution he (6) __________ to represent the spheroidal surface of the globe on a two-dimensional plane. It is less well known that Mercator was the first man to conceive of mapping the (7) __________ surface of the planet or that he (8) __________ the idea of multiple maps being presented in bound books, to which he gave the name ‘Atlas’. 

It is difficult for us now to be surprised by maps, so many are there, and of (9) __________ detail and coverage, but we should bear in mind that Mercator lived at a time when such knowledge was far from (10) __________. He was the man who altered our worldview forever.

1. A. remained B. continued C. maintained D. endured

2. A. territory B. distance C. range D. expanse

3. A. raised B. reared C. supplied D. nourished

4. A. congregate B. amass C. assimilate D. construct

5. A. from B. to C. with D. into

6. A. framed B. contrived C. devised D. schemed

7. A. sheer B. full C. entire D. utter

8. A. pioneered B. initiated C. led D. prepared

9. A. so B. such C. a lot of D. many

10. A. typical B. common C. routine D. normal

VIII. Read the following passage and write your answer A, B, C, or D in the numbered box to indicate the correct answers to each of the questions. (20 points)

Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually been a series of buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873, P.T. Barnum built Barnum’s Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street, across from Madison Square Park. Two years later, the bandleader Patrick Gilmore bought the property, added statues and fountains, and renamed it Gilmore’s Gardens. When Cornelius Vanderbilt bought the property in 1879, it was renamed Madison Square Garden.

A second very lavish Madison Square Garden was built at the same location in 1890, with a ballroom, a restaurant, a theater, a rooftop garden, and a main arena with seating for 15,000. However, this elaborate Madison Square Garden lasted until 1924 when it was torn down to make way for a forty-storey skyscraper.

When the second Madison Square Garden had been replaced in its location across from Madison Square Park, the boxing promoter Tex Rickard raised six million dollars to build a new Madison Square Garden. This new Madison Square Garden was constructed in a different location, on 8th Avenue and 50th Street and quite some distance from Madison Square Park and Madison Avenue. Rickard’s Madison Square Garden served primarily as an arena for boxing prize fights and circus events until it outgrew its usefulness by the late 1950s.

A new location was found for a fourth for Madison Square Garden, a top Pennsylvania Railroad Station, and plans were announced for its construction in 1960. This current edifice, which includes a huge sports arena, a bowling center, a 5,000-seat amphitheater, and a twenty-nine-storey office building, does retain the traditional name Madison Square Garden. However, the name is actually quite a misnomer. The building is not located near Madison Square, nor does it have the flowery gardens that contributed to the original name.

1. The main point of this passage is that Madison Square Garden __________.

A. was P.T. Barnum’s major accomplishment

B. is home to many different sporting events

C. was named after and adjacent park

D. has had a varied history in various locations

2. Which paragraph discusses the third location of Madison Square Garden?

A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph

C. The third paragraph D. The last paragraph

3. The word “venue” in paragraph 1 can be defined as __________.

A. an exhibit of various products

B. a conference for an environmental issue

C. an organization owning a series of sports buildings

D. a place where people meet for an organized event

4. According to the passage, Patrick Gilmore __________.

A. purchased the property at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street in 1973

B. named the property that he bought Madison Square Garden

C. made improvements to the property that he bought

D. sold the property to Cornelius Vanderbilt seven years later

5. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. modest B. modern C. luxurious D. unusual

6. The name Gilmore’s Gardens was used in __________.

A. 2 years B. 4 years C. 7 years D. 11 years

7. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.

A. a circus event B. Square Garden

C. Square Park D. a boxing prizefight

8. Which of the following would most likely have taken place at Rickard’s Madison Square Garden?

A. A monkey show B. A book fair

C. A football match D. A singing contest

9. The word “arena” in paragraph 3 is most likely __________.

A. conference B. an organization C. a stadium D. a competition

10. Which can be inferred about the current Madison Square Garden?

A. It is above a transportation center. B. It is across from Madison Square Park.

C. It has incredible gardens. D. It is on Madison Avenue.

IX. Read the passage below and fill each number blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered box. (20 points)

What is ChatGPT?

ChatGPT is an AI chatbot system that OpenAI released in November to (1) __________ off and test what a very large, powerful AI system can accomplish. You can ask it countless questions and often will get (2) __________ answer that’s useful. For example, you can ask it encyclopedia questions like, “Explain Newton’s laws of (3) __________.” You can tell it, “Write me a poem,”. Then, you ask it to write a computer program that (4) __________ show you all the different ways you can arrange the letters of a word.

ChatGPT doesn’t (5) __________ know anything. It’s an AI that’s trained to recognize patterns in vast swaths of text harvested (6) __________ the Internet, then further trained with human assistance to deliver more useful, better dialog. The answers you get may sound plausible and even authoritative. (7) __________, they might well be entirely wrong, as OpenAI warns.

Chatbots have been of interest for years to companies looking for ways to help customers get (8) __________ they need and to AI researchers trying to tackle the Turing Test. That’s the famous “Imitation Game” that computer scientist Alan Turing proposed in 1950 as a way to measure intelligence.

But chatbots have a lot of baggage, as companies have tried with limited success to use them (9) __________ of humans to handle customer service work. A study of 1,700 Americans, sponsored by a company called Ujet, (10) __________ technology handles customer contacts, found that 72% of people found chatbots to be a waste of time.


X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the  sentence printed before it. Write it in the space provided. (10 points) 

1. When she arrived at the airport, Thuy Tien, Miss Grand was warmly welcomed by her fans. 

→ On her _____________________________________________________________________________.

2. The reason why I was given a promotion was that Laurence recommended me. 

→ But _______________________________________________________________________________.

3. The staff hated Frank’s new policies intensely and so went on strike. 

→ So intense __________________________________________________________________________.

4. I’m just about to give up this diet because it’s not working at all. 

→ I’m on the __________________________________________________________________________.

5. Julia soon calmed down and explained her problem. 

→ Julia soon pulled _____________________________________________________________________. 

XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the given word in bold given without changing the given word. Write it in the space provided. (10 points) 

1. If she hadn’t interfered, there would have been no problems. SMOOTHLY 

→ Without her _________________________________________________________________________.

2. He realized how much he cared for her only when she had been away for a long time. HOME 

→ Her prolonged _______________________________________________________________________.

3. He would spend his very last penny trying to ingratiate himself with his father-in-law. EXPENSE 

→ In his ______________________________________________________________________________.

4. I don’t mind which make of car you choose. CONSEQUENCE 

→ It is of _____________________________________________________________________________.

5. People who often talk too much about unimportant things do not appeal to me. DONKEY 

→ I’m not in ___________________________________________________________________________.

XII. Paragraph writing: (20 points) 

In about 150 words, write a paragraph about qualities you think a person needs to live in harmony in an extended family. Write your paragraph in the space provided.