Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hạ Long, Quảng Ninh môn Tiếng Anh (chuyên) năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án

Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hạ Long, Quảng Ninh năm học 2022-2023

Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hạ Long, Quảng Ninh môn Tiếng Anh (chuyên) năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án chi tiết đã được đăng tải tại website Tài liệu diệu kỳ. Bài chi chuyên Anh tại Quảng Ninh có 10 trang được chia làm 4 phần chính: A. Listening (2,5 điểm); B. Lexico-Grammar (2 điểm); C. Reading (3 điểm) và D. Writing (2,5 điểm). Căn cứ Kết quả bài thi chuyên, Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Ninh sẽ công bố điểm chuẩn trúng tuyển vào Trường Chuyên Hạ Long.

Tài liệu đặc biệt hữu ích đối với các bạn học sinh có nguyện vọng thi vào Trường THPT Chuyên Hạ Long, ôn tập và làm quen với các dạng bài và cấu trúc đề thi. Từ đó, chuẩn bị hành trang kiến thức vững vàng để chinh phục kỳ thi Tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT sắp tới.

Điểm xét tuyển (ĐXT) đối với thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Tiếng Anh, trường THPT Chuyên Hạ Long được tính theo công thức sau: ĐXT = Tổng điểm 3 bài thi môn chung (Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ (Tiếng Anh, Tiếng Trung Quốc)) + Điểm bài thi môn Tiếng Anh (chuyên) x 2.

Theo kế hoạch, Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Quảng Ninh sẽ công bố kết quả thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 THPT cả hệ chuyên và không chuyên vào ngày 14/6; tiếp nhận đơn và chấm phúc khảo từ 19 đến 22/6; thông báo kết quả phúc khảo và công bố điểm chuẩn trúng tuyển vào lớp 10 ngày 22/6.

Tải xuống: Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Hạ Long, Quảng Ninh môn Tiếng Anh (chuyên) năm học 2022-2023




(Đáp án có 02 trang)


NĂM HỌC 2022-2023

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Chuyên)

Dành cho thí sinh thi vào Trường THPT Chuyên Hạ Long

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

A. LISTENING (2.5 points)

Part 1: (1.0 point =>  0.1 point/ each correct answer)

1. furniture 2. meetings 3. diary 4. interpersonal 5. details

6. deliveries 7. numbers 8. tidy 9. team 10. heavy

Part 2: (0.5 points =>  0.1 point/ each correct answer)

11. A 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. B

Part 3: (0.5 points =>  0.1 point/ each correct answer)

16. F 17. T 18. T 19. F 20. T

Part 4: (0.5 points =>  0.1 point/ each correct answer)

21. A 22. D 23. E 24. F 25. C

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.0 points)

Part 1: Multiple-choice: (1.0 point => 0.1 point/ each correct answer)

1. D 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D

6. C 7. C 8. D 9. A 10.C

Part 2: Error identification: (0.5 points => 0.1 point/ each correct answer) 

11. C 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. C

Part 3: Word form: (0.5 points => 0.1 point/ each correct answer)

16. reality 17. deaden 18. disobedient 19. habitually 20. microscopic

C. READING (3.0 points)

Part 1: Read the text and circle the correct answer each gap: (0.8 points => 0.1 point/ each correct answer)

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D

5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C

Part 2: Fill the gap with ONE suitable word: (0.7 points => 0.1 point/ each correct answer)

9. because 10. such 11. about 12. can/could/may/might

13. if/when/whenever 14. from 15. so/this/that

Part 3: Read the passage and choose the correct answer: (1.0 point => 0.1 point/ each correct answer)

16. C 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D

21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. B

Part 4: Read the text and choose the correct heading: (0.5 points => 0.1 point/ each correct answer)

26. v 27. iv 28. vii 29. i 30. viii

D. WRITING (2.5 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences: (0.5 points => 0.1 point/ each correct answer)

1. However well you drive, driving at that speed is dangerous.

2. I have no intention of apologizing/apologising to either of them.

3. What most irritates me about him is his clothes.

4. There was a sharp contrast between the writer’s writing style and his spoken language.

5. It crossed his mind that he might have misunderstood her.

Part 2: Complete the second sentence: (0.5 points =>  0.1 point/ each correct answer)

6. They arrived at the station in the nick of time.

7. I whiled away the time by looking through some magazines.

8. Being her only niece, Ann is the apple of her eye.

9. I know I can bring Dave round to my way of thinking on this matter.

10. I don’t have a good memory for people’s surnames. 

Part 3: Write a paragraph of about 160 - 180 words about some disadvantages of using social networks (such as Facebook, Twitter, Instagram) among teenagers. (1.5 points)

Mô tả tiêu chí chấm đoạn văn Điểm tối đa

1. Bố cục - Câu chủ đề, giới hạn chủ đề mạch lạc

- Các câu phát triển ý

- Câu kết luận 0,3

2. Nội dung - Nêu được từ 2 câu bổ trợ cho câu chủ đề trở lên và nói rõ, giải thích thêm về các câu bổ trợ đó. 0,6

- Phát triển ý có trình tự logic, đủ thuyết phục người đọc. 0,2

- Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%. 0,1

3. Sử dụng ngôn từ, ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả - Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung, văn phong, thể loại. 0,2

- Sử dụng đúng dấu câu, ngữ pháp, chính tả. 0,1

Tổng 1,5

Tổng điềm toàn bài: 10 điểm (không làm tròn số)

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Nội dung Đề thi chuyên Anh vào THPT Chuyên Hạ Long, tỉnh Quảng Ninh năm học 2022-2023




(Đề thi có 10 trang)


NĂM HỌC 2022-2023

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Chuyên)

Dành cho thí sinh thi vào Trường THPT Chuyên Hạ Long

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

A. LISTENING (2.5 points)

Part 1: You will hear a woman who works at an employment agency talking to a man about jobs he can apply for. Listen and complete the table. Write ONE WORD for each answer. (1.0 point)

Employment Agency: Possible jobs

Employment Agency: Possible Jobs

First Job

Administrative assistant in a company that produces (1) __________ (North London)


●   data entry

●   go to (2) __________ and take notes

●   general admin

●   management of (3) __________


●   good computer skills including spreadsheets

●   good (4) __________ skills

●   attention to (5) __________ Second Job

Warehouse assistant in South London


●   stock management

●   managing (6) __________


●   ability to work with (7) __________

●   good computer skills

●   very organized and (8) __________

●   good communication skills

●   used to working in a (9) __________

●   able to cope with items that are (10) __________

Part 2: You will hear someone talking on the radio about food and restaurants in the local area. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (0.5 points)

11. The market is now situated __________.

A. under a car park B. beside the cathedral

C. near the river D. by the new shopping centre

12. On only one day a week the market sells __________.

A. antique furniture B. local produce

C. handmade items D. utensils like saucepans

13. The area is well-known for __________.

A. apples B. ice cream

C. a kind of cake D. a fish dish

14. What do fishermen do with the fish they catch? 

A. They don’t sell fish in the harbor.

B. They sell all their fish in London.

C. They don’t sell fish to other countries.

D. They sell fresh fish in a stall in the harbor.

15. What change has taken place in the harbor area?

A. There are no restaurants in the town.

B. The restaurants have moved to a different part.

C. There are fewer restaurants than there used to be.

D. Many new restaurants have been opened.

Part 3: You will hear a talk between a customer and a receptionist about joining a gym. Decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Put a tick ( ) in the correct box next to each sentence. (0.5 points)


16. The man has only recently decided to join the gym.

17. The woman says that other gyms have cancellation fees but this one doesn’t.

18. The exercise plan your personal trainer provides will tell you what to eat.

19. The personal trainer doesn’t cost anything at all.

20. The gym offers a sample visit.

Part 4: You will hear five different people talking about their jobs. Choose from the list (A-F) the reason why each speaker likes their job. Use each letter only once. There is one extra letter which you do NOT need to use. (0.5 points)

A. amusing colleagues

B. can be creative

C. good holiday entitlement

D. convenient location

E. flexible working hours

F. opportunities for promotion 21. Speaker 1 __________

22. Speaker 2 __________

23. Speaker 3 __________

24. Speaker 4 __________

25. Speaker 5 __________

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.0 points)

Part 1: Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best fits each of the blank ín the following questions. (1.0 point)

1. I wish I __________ there to see Gabriel’s face when you told him!

A. can be B. would have been

C. would be D. could have been

2. Nobody, even the best doctors, expected Frank’s __________ to be so quick and successful after so severe an accident.

A. renewal B. resumption C. recuperation D. renumeration

3. My grandfather __________ this camera when he was a young man, but I’m not sure.

A. may have used B. must have used

C. should have used D. need have used

4. The traffic in town was very __________ and I arrived home earlier than expected.

A. light B. weak C. little D. few

5. It could have been a lot worse __________ there.

A. when he was not B. whether or not he had been

C. for he had not been D. had he not been

6. The book says that the revolution was __________ off by the assassination of the state governor.

A. launched B. cropped C. triggered D. prompted

7. The __________ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning a house there.

A. competitive B. forbidding C. prohibitive D. inflatable

8. The life __________ of individuals in developed countries has increased dramatically for decades.

A. expectation B. exception C. exertion D. expectancy

9. __________ the two sisters, Mary is __________.

A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest

C. Of/ more prettier D. Between/ the prettier

10. Mark and Carol are talking in the classroom.

- Mark: “You must have found reading my essay very tiring.”

- Carol: “__________. I enjoyed it.” 

A. You are welcome B. Just in case

C. Not in the least D. At all costs

Part 2: Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting in each of the following sentences. (0.5 points)

11. Only recently (A) did the talent spotter wake up to the fact that my daughter, an (B) aspiring starlet with (C) great potentials, would make (D) it to the top.

12. Every (A) employee is expected to be (B) competent and (C) industrial because wage rates (D) depend on levels of productivity.

13. The number of wild condors, an endangered (A) species of bird, (B) have been increasing (C) steadily (D) because of the work of scientists and environmentalists.

14. The next step is (A) deforestation, which involves (B) growing forests in areas (C) where there (D) were none before.

15. The federal government (A) recommends that all (B) expectant mothers (C) will not only refrain from smoking but also avoid places where other people (D) smoke.

Part 3: Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers in the spaces provided. (0.5 points)

16. Eddie had imagined life on the farm to be enjoyable and peaceful, but the (REAL) __________ turned out to be totally different. 

17. The wounded soldier was given some morphine to (DIE) __________ the pain. 

18. Her son is always mischievous and (OBEY) __________, which annoys her very much. 

19. Cats are not considered to be social animals in the sense that they have never (HABIT) __________travelled in packs or adopted leaders. 

20. A million new species of (SCOPE) __________ sea life have recently been observed for the first time.

C. READING (3.0 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (0.8 points)

A love of travelling 

For Nigel Portman, a love of travelling began with what’s called a ‘gap year’. In common with many other British teenagers, he chose to take a year out before (1) __________ to study for his degree. After doing various jobs to (2) __________ some money, he left home to gain some experience of life in different cultures, visiting America and Asia. The more adventurous the young person, the greater the challenge they are likely to (3) __________ themselves for the gap year, and for some, like Nigel, it can result in a thirst for adventure. 

Now that his university course has come to an end, Nigel is just about to leave on a three-year trip that will take him (4) __________ around the world. What’s more, he plans to make the whole journey using only means of transport which are (5) __________ by natural energy. In other words, he’ll be (6) __________ mostly on bicycles and his own legs; and when there’s an ocean to cross, he won’t be taking a (7) __________ cut by climbing aboard a plane, he’ll be Joining the crew of a sailing ship (8) __________.

1. A. settling down B. getting up C. taking over D. holding back

2. A. achieve B. raise C. advance D. win

3. A. put B. set C. aim D. place

4. A. just B. complete C. whole D. right

5. A. pulled B. charged C. forced D. powered

6. A. relying B. using C. attempting D. trying

7. A. quick B. short C. brief D. swift

8. A. anyway B. alike C. instead D. otherwise

Part 2: Fill the gap with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided. (0.7 points)

The truth is nobody really knows how the language first began. Did we all start talking at around the same time (9) __________ of the manner in which our brains had begun to develop? 

Although there is a lack of clear evidence, people have come up with various theories about the origins of language. One recent theory is that human beings have evolved in (10) __________ a way that we are programmed for language from the moment of birth. In other words, language came (11) __________ as a result of an evolutionary change in our brains at some stage. 

Language (12) __________ well be programmed into the brain but, despite this, people still need stimulus from others around them. From studies, we know that (13) __________ children are isolated (14) __________ human contact and have not learnt to construct sentences before they are ten, it is doubtful they will ever do (15) __________. This research shows, if nothing else, that language is a social activity, not something invented in isolation.

Part 3: Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1.0 point)

Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it, and that the easiest way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the North American Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and made into cakes), the Scandinavians made stock fish and the Arabs dried dates and apricots.

All foods contain water - cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which causes food to go bad is checked.

Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean countries, and also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.

Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C at exit. This is the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.

Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.

Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.

From Practical Faster Reading by Gerald Mosback and Vivien Mosback. CUP

16. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Advantages of dried foods B. Water: the main component of food

C. Different methods of drying foods D. Mechanization of drying foods

17. The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means __________.

A. moisten foods B. remove moisture from foods

C. produce pemmican D. expose foods to sun and wind

18. The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.

A. motivated to develop B. reduced considerably

C. examined carefully D. put a tick

19. In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help __________.

A. crack their skin B. remove their wax coating

C. maintain their color D. kill off bacteria

20. Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is __________.

A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards

B. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder

C. dipping them in an alkaline solution

D. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through

21. What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?

A. chambers B. foods C. things D. vegetables

22. The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be __________.

A. fine powder B. dried soup C. recognizable pieces D. small flakes

23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruits and vegetables.

B. Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.

C. People in India began to use drying methods centuries ago.

D. Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.

24. According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for __________.

A. explorers who are underweight B. people who are on the move

C. soldiers who are not in battle D. housewives who have little storage space

25. This passage is mainly __________.

A. analytical B. informative C. fictional D. argumentative

Part 4: The following reading passage has five paragraphs, A-E. Read the paragraphs and choose the correct heading for each from the list below. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. Write the number of the heading in the corresponding provided space. (0.5 points)


A. The story of chocolate begins with the discovery of America in 1492. Columbus was the first European to come into contact with cacao. On August 5th, 1502, on his fourth and last voyage to the Americas, Columbus and his crew met some natives in a canoe that contained beans from the cacao tree. Columbus was struck by how much value the Indians placed on them as he did not know the beans were used for currency. It is unlikely that Columbus brought any of these beans back to Spain and it was not until about twenty years later that Cortez grasped the commercial possibilities when he found the Aztecs using the beans to make the royal drink “chocolate”.

B. The Spanish, in general, were not fond of the bitter drink so Cortez and his followers made it more palatable by adding cane sugar and later cinnamon and vanilla were added. Spanish monks let the secret out back home and, although the Spanish hid it from their neighbours for a hundred years, finally chocolate’s popularity grew until it was the fashionable drink at the French court and the discerning choice of customers at London meeting houses.

C. The cacao beans are harvested from pods grown on the cacao tree. The pods come in a range of types since cacao trees cross-pollinate freely. These types can be reduced to three classifications. The most common is Forastero, which accounts for nearly 90% of the world’s production of cacao beans. This is the easiest to cultivate and has a thick-walled pod and a pungent aroma. Rarest and most prized are the beans of the Criollo. These beans from the soft, thin-skinned pod have an aroma and delicacy that make them sought after by the world’s best chocolate makers. Finally, there is the Trinitario, which is believed to be a natural cross from strains of the other two types. It has a great variety of characteristics but generally possesses a good, aromatic flavour and the trees are particularly suitable for cultivation.

D. The cacao tree is strictly a tropical plant thriving only in hot, rainy climates. Thus, its cultivation is confined to countries not more than 20 degrees north or south of the equator. The cacao tree is very delicate and sensitive. It needs protection from the wind and requires a fair amount of shade under most conditions. This is true, especially in its first two or three years of growth. A newly planted cacao seedling is often sheltered by a different type of tree. It is normal to plant food crops for shade such as bananas, plantain, coconuts or cocoyams. Rubber trees and forest trees are also used for shade. Once established, however, cacao trees can grow in full sunlight, provided there are fertile soil conditions and intensive husbandry. With pruning and careful cultivation, the trees of most strains will begin bearing fruit in the fifth year. With extreme care, some strains can be induced to yield good crops in the third and fourth years.

E. The process of turning cacao into chocolate hasn’t changed much since the Swiss made the major breakthroughs in the process in the late 1800s. First, the beans (up to twelve varieties harvested from all over the world) go through a process of fermentation and drying. They are then sorted by hand before cleaning and then roasting. Winnowing follows which removes the hard outer hulls and leaves what is known as the “nibs”. A crushing and heating process known as Hunter’sProcess is then used to remove nearly half of the cocoa butter from the nibs. This makes unsweetened chocolate (also known as cooking chocolate). Basic eating chocolate is made from a blending of the unsweetened chocolate with some of the cocoa butter along with other ingredients such as sugar and vanilla. The resulting product is then “conched” and this conching gives chocolate the velvet texture that we know so well. The finished result is then moulded, cooled, packaged by machine, distributed, sold and, of course, eaten!

List of headings

i. Growing The Tree

ii. Why We Like It

iii. How the Aztecs Discovered Chocolate

iv. Chocolate Spreads to Europe

v. First Contact

vi. The Countries that Grow Cacao Trees

vii. Varieties of Cacao

viii. From Bean to Bar 26. Paragraph A: __________

27. Paragraph B: __________

28. Paragraph C: __________

29. Paragraph D: __________

30. Paragraph E: __________

D. WRITING (2.5 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences ín such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (0.5 points)

1. Driving at that speed is dangerous although you drive well. 

=> However _______________________________________________________________________________.

2. I don’t intend to apologize to either of them.

=> I have _________________________________________________________________________________.

3. I find his clothes the most irritating about him.

=> What most _____________________________________________________________________________.

4. The writer’s writing style contrasted sharply with his spoken language.

=> There was ______________________________________________________________________________.

5. He suddenly thought that he might have misunderstood her.

=> It crossed ______________________________________________________________________________.

Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (0.5 points)

6. They arrived at the station with only a minute to spare. (NICK)

=> They arrived at the station _________________________________________________________________.

7. To pass the time, I looked through some magazines. (WHILED)

=> I ________________________________________________________________________ some magazines.

8. Being her only niece, Ann is very precious to her. (APPLE)

=> Being her only niece, _____________________________________________________________________.

9. I know I can convince Dave that I’m right about that matter. (BRING)

=> I know I can __________________________________________________ my way of thinking on this matter.

10. I don’t usually remember people’s surnames. (MEMORY)

=> I don’t __________________________________________________________________ people’s surnames.

Part 3: Write a paragraph of about 160-180 words about some disadvantages of using social networks (such as Facebook, Twitter, Instagram) among teenagers. (1.5 points)

Write your paragraph in the space below.

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