Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 chương trình GDPT 2018

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 1/4

Ngày 29/8, Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Hà Nội đã công bố Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 năm 2025 theo chương trình mới GDPT 2018. Đề thi gồm 04 trang, được phát hành tại Tài liệu diệu kỳ dưới dạng file Word và PDF để thuận tiện tải xuống, áp dụng cho kỳ tuyển sinh bắt đầu từ năm học 2025-2026.

Cấu trúc đề thi minh họa môn Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 năm 2025 của Hà Nội gồm bốn phần: Ngữ âm (10%), Từ vựng-ngữ pháp-giao tiếp (30%), Viết (30%), và Đọc hiểu (30%).

Bài thi kiểm tra ba mức độ tư duy: nhận biết, thông hiểu và vận dụng, với tổng điểm 10, trong đó 60% tập trung vào nhận biết và thông hiểu, còn 40% là vận dụng.

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 1/4

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 1/4

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 2/4

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 2/4

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 3/4

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 3/4

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 4/4

Đề thi minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2025 - 4/4

Đánh giá chung đề thi

Đề thi có độ khó vừa phải, không đánh đố, tập trung vào kiến thức trong SGK theo chương trình GDPT 2018, giúp học sinh vận dụng kiến thức vào đời sống và nâng cao khả năng tự học.

Học sinh cần tránh học mẹo, học tủ và phải chăm chỉ để đạt điểm cao. Để ôn luyện tốt, cần nắm chắc kiến thức SGK, cải thiện vốn từ, đọc nhiều và rèn viết câu, đoạn văn thường xuyên.

Đáp án tham khảo đề minh họa Tiếng Anh 10 Hà Nội 2025

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

5. A

6. C

7. A

8. D

9. D

10. D

11. B

12. C

13. C

14. C

15. B

16. D

17. A

18. C

19. C

20. B

21. A

22. D

23. C

24. D

25. A

26. C

27. D

28. A

29. D

30. A

31. B

32. A

33. C

34. B

35. C

36. D

37. B

38. C

39. D

40. A

Nội dung đề chính thức

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 

HÀ NỘI



(Đề thi gồm 04 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT

THEO CHƯƠNG TRÌNH GDPT 2018

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề




Họ, tên thí sinh: ..........................................................................

Số báo danh: ............................................................................... 


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. show B. post C. lock D. note

2. A. facility B. crowd C. space D. cycling

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. hotel B. suburb C. public D. moment

4. A. arrival B. emotion C. mechanic D. engineer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

5. Our tour guide gave us a list of local tourist _______, including museums, parks, and historical sites.

A. attractions B. buildings C. situations D. schedules

6. She _______ with her friends at the festival when the fireworks started.

A. was danced B. danced C. was dancing D. dancing

7. Nam thinks going hiking in the mountains is _______ than swimming in a pool.

A. more tiring B. so tiring C. most tiring D. as tiring

8. If we _______ renewable energy sources, we _______ our carbon footprints.

A. used - reducing B. will use - reduce

C. are using - reducing D. use - will reduce

9. Phuong is telling Amelia her good news.

- Phuong: “I’ve just been recognized to be the best student of the month!”

- Amelia: “_______”

A. Thanks for your advice. B. No worries. Everything will be alright.

C. My pleasure. D. How cool! Congratulations!

10. Da Nang, _______ is famous for its international fireworks festival, attracts thousands of visitors every year.

A. where B. that C. what D. which

11. Chi was _______ when she saw the beautiful sunset for the first time.

A. kind B. amazed C. worthy D. helpless

12. Drinking _______ of fruit juice is a good way to get vitamins.

A. many B. few C. a lot D. no

Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.

WHAT TO DO DURING DISASTERS

1. Stay (13) _______ your house and away from windows.

2. Don’t drive or walk into flood water.

3. Move to high ground far from (14) _______ sea.

4. Get under a desk or table.

5. (15) _______ to local news reports and leave if they tell you to leave.

6. Call the emergency services if you are in (16) _______.


13. A. over B. into C. inside D. away

14. A. x (no article) B. a C. the D. an

15. A. Watch B. Listen C. Read D. Wait

16. A. dangerous B. endangered C. dangerously D. danger

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 17 to 18.

17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.

We had an unforgettable holiday in Singapore last week. Things didn’t go on as smoothly as we had expected before. _______.

a. Upon our arrival at the safari park two hours later, we realized that it was closed for maintenance.

b. It all started when my parents decided to visit the safari park.

c. We were so excited about the trip, but the moment that we left the hotel, it started raining.

A. b - c - a B. a - c - b C. c - b - a D. b - a - c

18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.

A. Then we asked a local man who lived nearby how to get to the park.

B. First, this park is really a must-visit for all nature lovers.

C. We finally got back to the hotel with sadness and disappointment.

D. To begin with, we had a lot of fun exploring the different animal exhibits here.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.

Living in the mountains can be very hard. First, there is (19) _______ to grow crops or raise livestock. (20) _______ houses is also difficult because the land is not flat. The air in the mountains is (21) _______. The higher we get, the thinner the air becomes. This means there is less oxygen, which makes breathing harder.

Despite these challenges, people around the world have lived and worked in mountainous areas for centuries. There are many health benefits of living in the mountains. Being on the mountaintops (22) _______ you to live far from pollution. The air you breathe is fresher. There are places where you cannot drive a car or a motorbike, (23) _______ you have to walk. Travelling up and down hills and mountains on foot helps keep (24) _______. Finally, mountain people are quite simple and friendly. They live a peaceful life.

19. A. enough not land B. land not enough C. not enough land D. land enough not

20. A. Build B. Building C. Builds D. Buildings

21. A. another problem B. many problem C. others problem D. any problem

22. A. lets B. allow C. let D. allows

23. A. because B. although C. so D. since

24. A. you are active B. active you C. active you are D. you active

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.

25. “I’m busy with my work all day today,” his dad said.

A. His dad said he was busy with his work all that day.

B. His dad said he is busy with his work all day that day.

C. His dad said he were busy with his work all day today.

D. His dad said I was busy with my work all day that day.

26. Let’s drink some warm water after eating spicy food.

A. What about we drink some warm water after eating spicy food?

B. How about to drink some warm water after eating spicy food?

C. Why don’t we drink some warm water after eating spicy food?

D. Why not drinking some warm water after we eating spicy food?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues in each of the following questions.

27. Lucy and I/ different opinions/ but/ we/ still/ get/ each other.

A. Lucy and I have different opinions, but we still get along each other.

B. Lucy and I have different opinions, but we still get with each other.

C. Lucy and I have different opinions, but we still get well with each other.

D. Lucy and I have different opinions, but we still get on with each other.

28. Laura/ suggested/ go skiing/ the/ Alps/ Christmas.

A. Laura suggested going skiing in the Alps at Christmas.

B. Laura suggested we going skiing in the Alps in the Christmas.

C. Laura suggested we going skiing into the Alps at Christmas.

D. Laura suggested go skiing outside the Alps on the Christmas.

Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

29. What does the sign say? 

  A. You don’t need to wear a hard hat in this area.

B. There is a hard hat in this area.

C. This area provides hard hats.

D. You must wear a hard hat in this area.


30. What does the notice say?

  A. There may be ticket checks during your bus journey.

B. Transport officers request you to buy a bus ticket.

C. Transport officers have to keep your bus ticket.

D. You can get your bus ticket from the transport officers.


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.

British English and American English are two variations of the English language that share many similarities, but also some notable differences in pronunciation, vocabulary and grammar.

The pronunciation of American English is one of the biggest differences. One of the most noticeable differences is the pronunciation of R. The British tend to pronounce R in the middle and end of words very softly, but Americans like to stress it. Spelling is another difference. Americans often spell many verbs ending with a -t sound by using -ed as in burnt (BE) and burned (AE). In both of these cases, the -t is pronounced. British prefer to spell -ise with a S but American prefer to spell it as it is pronounced with a Z.

There are even differences in vocabulary. Americans use the word “pants” for “trousers” and “apartment” for the word “flat”.

Grammar is another area of difference. The British are more likely to use formal speech, such as “shall”, while Americans prefer the more informal version, “will”. You may hear the British say “needn’t” but Americans would almost always use “don’t need to”. In spite of these differences, the vast majority of language points are the same in both variations.

31. What is the main idea of the reading passage?

A. British and American English are identical in all aspects.

B. British and American English have key differences but many similarities.

C. There are different ways to pronounce British and American English.

D. There are different variations of the English language around the world.

32. The word notable in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.

A. important B. easy C. unimportant D. difficult

33. What does the writer use to give more explanations to each point?

A. numbers B. symbols C. examples D. quotes

34. Which example is NOT mentioned in the text?

A. pronunciation of R B. fluency C. spelling of -ed D. apartment vs. flat

35. What final comment does the author make about differences between American and British English?

A. There are no differences in vocabulary and grammar.

B. There is only a slight difference in pronunciation.

C. Most language points are the same.

D. Differences are more important than similarities.

36. The word vast in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.

A. large B. unlimited C. huge D. small

Four phrases/sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 40.

England’s traditions have been around for hundreds, even thousands of years. English cuisine is (37) _______ that English people are proud to keep alive.

Typical English cuisine has developed over many centuries, and people say that fish and chips is the most English dish of all. It is believed that fish and chips appeared in England in the 19th century. (38) _______. Since then, people have considered fish and chips to be England’s national dish, and it is now a common takeaway in the United Kingdom.

The basic ingredients of the dish are fried fish served with chips. (39) _______. Fish and chips is served hot as the main dish in England. Although there is oil and carbohydrates in fish and chips, it is healthier than other takeaway dishes.

Now there are fish and chip shops in many countries, and it is (40) _______ in other countries, too. Preserving and promoting fish and chips is the way English people keep themselves associated with the past.

A. becoming more and more popular

B. among the deep-rooted traditions

C. The earliest fish and chip shop opened in London during the 1860s.

D. People in different places may add peas, vinegar, lemon, or ketchup.

37. _______ 38. _______ 39. _______ 40. _______

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