Đề minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 có đáp án

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 1/4

Mời quý thầy cô và các em tham khảo Đề minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 có đáp án tại website Tài liệu diệu kỳ, tài liệu được cung cấp kèm theo file word và pdf thuận tiện tải xuống để in và chỉnh sửa.

Tổng quan đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 THPT môn Tiếng Anh của Sở GD&ĐT Hải Phòng theo chương chình GDPT 2018 có 40 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm, thời gian làm bài 60 phút.

Cấu trúc đề thi Tiếng Anh từ năm học 2025-2026 tại Hải Phòng

1. Phát âm khác biệt (2 câu).

2. Trọng âm khác biệt (2 câu).

3. Từ trái nghĩa (2 câu).

4. Từ đồng nghĩa (2 câu).

5. Hoàn thành câu đúng (12 câu).

6. Chỉ ra lỗi sai trong câu (2 câu).

7. Đọc hiểu và điền từ vào chỗ trống (5 câu, bài đọc 150-180 từ).

8. Đọc hiểu và trả lời câu hỏi (5 câu, bài đọc 180-200 từ).

9. Câu gần nghĩa với câu gốc (4 câu).

10. Kết hợp câu từ các từ/ cụm từ cho sẵn (4 câu).

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 1/4

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 1/4

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 2/4

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 2/4

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 3/4

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 3/4

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 4/4

Đề MH TS Tiếng Anh 10 Hải Phòng 2025-2026 - 4/4

Đáp án tham khảo môn Tiếng Anh TS lớp 10 THPT Hải Phòng 2025

1. A

2. A

3. A

4. A

5. A

6. A

7. A

8. A

9. A

10. A

11. A

12. A

13. A

14. A

15. A

16. A

17. A

18. A

19. A

20. A

21. A

22. A

23. A

24. A

25. A

26. A

27. A

28. A

29. A

30. A

31. A

32. A

33. A

34. A

35. A

36. A

37. A

38. A

39. A

40. A

Nội dung đề Tiếng Anh Hải Phòng 2025

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 

HẢI PHÒNG 



(Đề thi có 04 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT

NĂM HỌC 2025-2026

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (ĐẠI TRÀ)

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề




Họ, tên thí sinh: ..........................................................................

Số báo danh: ............................................................................... 


I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

1. A. feature B. pottery C. treatment D. downtown

2. A. deadline B. optimistic C. inform D. minimise

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.

3. A. promise B. preserve C. delay D. replace

4. A. habitat B. contestant C. committee D. ingredient

III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

5. My parents always expect my sister to get good grades and she doesn’t want to disappoint them.

A. please B. support C. empathize D. encourage

6. Traffic congestion is terrible in the big cities, especially in rush hours.

A. wonderful B. reliable C. small D. fresh

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word.

7. When you read, try to figure out the meaning of a new word from the words around it.

A. understand B. try out C. look up D. use

8. Living in big cities provides us with a lot of benefits in job opportunity.

A. advantages B. achievements C. drawbacks D. difficulties

V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that completes each of the sentences.

9. Her backache was too painful, _______ she had to stop working in the factory.

A. so B. but C. because D. therefore

10. My sister will look _______ a job in Ha Noi as soon as she graduates from university.

A. for B. forward C. after D. round

11. She doesn’t like living in this area because it is like a _______ with all these tall buildings.

A. concrete jungle B. tourist attraction C. concrete wood D. green space

12. They suggest that the man _______ by train in order to meet people and see places of interest.

A. travel B. to travel C. travelling D. travels

13. Children nowadays are more aware _______ environment protection than we did in the past.

A. of B. at C. on D. in

14. My brother never _______ soft drinks because he thinks they are not good for health.

A. drinks B. is drinking C. will drink D. drank

15. Tourists from all over the world love Hoi An for its very _______ custom-made clothing.

A. affordable B. affordability C. afford D. affordably

16. My mobile phone, _______ I lost on the train last week, had all my contacts on it.

A. which B. that C. who D. whose

17. John is still _______ dependent on his parents; he regularly receives money from them.

A. financially B. finance C. financial D. financier

18. When I turned up, the town hall was already _______ of teenagers.

A. full B. jammed C. packed D. crowded

19. Peter is happy to tell Kate about his scholarship in England.

- Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in England.”

- Kate: “Uh, really? _______!”

A. Congratulations B. You are lucky C. Oh my God D. Take care of yourself

20. Matt wants to borrow Elena’s bike to go to the market because it’s far from his house.

- Matt: “Would you mind lending me your bike?”

- Elena: “_______”

A. No, not at all. B. Yes, let’s. C. Yes, here it is. D. Good idea.

VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the part that is incorrect in each of the sentences.

21. Mrs. Steven, along with her cousins from Canada, are planning to attend the firework display in Da Nang, Vietnam.

A. are B. her cousins C. the firework D. to attend

22. When we were on holiday, we spent too many money.

A. many B. When C. too D. were

VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word/phrase that completes each blank.

Around 60 kilometers southwest of Hanoi, the Perfume Pagoda is one of the largest (23) _______ sites in Huong Son Commune, My Duc District. It comprises a complex of pagodas and Buddhist shrines built into the limestone cliffs of Perfume Mount, spreading alongside the mountain up to the peak. The complex’s center is Inner Temple, right inside Huong Tich Cavern. Huge numbers of (24) _______ flock to the site during the Perfume Pagoda Festival, which begins in the middle of the first lunar month and (25) _______ until the middle of the third month (or from February to April) (26) _______ pray for happiness and prosperity in the coming year. Also, it is a very popular opportunity for young couples to meet and for numerous romances to be formed. On this special occasion, a wide (27) _______ of traditional cultural activities is incorporated. The Perfume Pagoda is not only a sacred site for Buddhists, but a great sightseeing spot in Vietnam as well.

23. A. religious B. regional C. seasonal D. ruinous

24. A. pilgrims B. spectators C. passengers D. observers

25. A. lasts B. ends C. finishes D. stops

26. A. in order to B. so that C. because D. due to

27. A. range B. kind C. type D. series

VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions that follow.

Obviously, it is difficult to compare the life of ancient people and the life of the people living in the 21st century because so many changes have occurred. Even the changes that have occurred over the last ten years are amazing. To start with, in the past, people had to work harder as they did not have tools and machines to make their work easier. Today, most of the difficult and dangerous work is done by computers and other powerful machines. In the past, living conditions were not as comfortable as they are now. Besides, many people could not afford household appliances like a fridge or a vacuum cleaner because those used to be luxurious goods. Another difference between life now and in the past is that nowadays education is accessible to everyone. In the past, men were mainly the only ones educated and women were not allowed into public or private schools. Besides, nowadays, it is much easier to find the educational materials and the information you need, thanks to the Internet. It is therefore an obvious conclusion that life has changed significantly during the course of history.

28. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Life in the past and life in the present B. Vietnam’s economy now and 100 years ago

C. Economic changes in Vietnam D. Significant changes in education

29. How is most of the difficult and dangerous work done today?

A. By computers and other powerful machines B. By all of the workers

C. By vacuum cleaners D. By robots

30. The word significantly is closest in meaning to _______.

A. considerably B. slightly C. gradually D. immediately

31. According to the passage, why couldn’t many people afford household appliances like a fridge or a vacuum cleaner?

A. Because those appliances were very expensive.

B. Because those appliances weren’t invented.

C. Because they did not use those appliances in their life.

D. Because they were very poor.

32. Which sentence is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Women in the past were only accepted into public schools.

B. Education used to be available only to men.

C. People in the past lived less comfortably than they do now.

D. The Internet enables us to access educational materials more easily.

IX. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the original one.

33. Tim is very busy; however, he manages to spend time with his children every evening.

A. Although Tim is very busy, he manages to spend time with his children every evening.

B. Tim is very busy because he has to spend time with his children every evening.

C. Even though Tim manages to spend time with his children every evening, he was very busy.

D. Tim manages to spend time with his children every evening, so he was very busy.

34. “Should I tell my parents what I really think?”, Peter asked.

A. Peter wondered whether to tell his parents what he really thought.

B. Peter wondered whether to tell my parents what I really thought.

C. Peter wondered whether he should tell his parents what he really thinks.

D. Peter wondered whether to tell parents what he really thinks.

35. Hurry up or we’ll be late for the concert.

A. If we don’t hurry up, we’ll be late for the concert.

B. If we hurry up, we’ll be late for the concert.

C. Only if we hurry up, we’ll be late for the concert.

D. Unless we hurry up, we won’t be late for the concert.

36. We had to cancel our trip to Japan because of my friend’s illness.

A. My friend was ill, so we had to cancel our trip to Japan.

B. Our trip to Japan was cancelled since my friend’s illness.

C. Our trip to Japan was cancelled although my friend was ill.

D. Because my friend was ill, so we had to cancel our trip to Japan.

X. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is BEST written from the words/phrases given.

37. It/ be/ nice song/ that/ I/ listen/ it/ all day.

A. It was such a nice song that I listened to it all day.

B. It was so a nice song that I listened to it all day.

C. It was such nice song that I listened to it all day.

D. It was such a nice song that I listened it all day.

38. you/ remember/ year/ we start/ learn English?

A. Do you remember the year when we started to learn English?

B. Do you remember a year when we start to learn English?

C. Do you remember the year which we started to learn English?

D. Do you remember a year which we started to learn English?

39. hard/ he/ study/ well/ understand/ subject.

A. The harder he studies, the better he understands the subject.

B. The more hardly he studies, the better he understands the subject.

C. More hard he studies, better he understands the subject.

D. Harder he studies, better he understands the subject.

40. Harder he studies, better he understands the subject.

A. He wishes he knew the way to the station.

B. He wishes he knows the way to the station.

C. He wishes he can know the way to the station.

D. He wishes he has known the way to the station.

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