Đề HSG Tiếng Anh 9 Hải Dương 2024-2025 có đáp án

Đề HSG Tiếng Anh 9 Hải Dương 2024-2025

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Hải Dương vừa công bố kết quả kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9 THCS cấp tỉnh năm học 2024–2025, với 620 học sinh đoạt giải, tăng 34 giải so với năm trước. Kỳ thi diễn ra ngày 03/12 tại TP Hải Dương, thu hút hơn 1.000 thí sinh tham dự. Đây là năm đầu tiên áp dụng Chương trình Giáo dục phổ thông 2018, đồng thời cũng là lần đầu Sở GD&ĐT Hải Dương sử dụng kết quả môn Tin học để xếp hạng đồng đội.

Tài liệu diệu kỳ cập nhật đầy đủ Đề HSG Tiếng Anh 9 Hải Dương 2024–2025 có đáp án, kèm file nghe giúp học sinh dễ dàng ôn luyện và luyện đề hiệu quả.

Đề HSG Tiếng Anh 9 Hải Dương 2024-2025

TÓM TẮT NỘI DUNG

Tổng quan đề thi HSG cấp tỉnh lớp 9 Hải Dương

150 phút – 08 trang – 4 phần – 75 câu

A. Listening (20 điểm)

• Part 1: Short conversations MCQ – 5 câu – 5 điểm

• Part 2: Interview MCQ – 5 câu – 5 điểm

• Part 3: Note completion – 5 câu – 5 điểm

• Part 4: True/False radio interview – 5 câu – 5 điểm

B. Lexico-Grammar (25 điểm)

• Part 1: Multiple choice grammar/vocab – 9 câu – 4.5 điểm

• Part 2a: Cloze text announcement – 3 câu – 1.5 điểm

• Part 2b: Cloze text advertisement – 3 câu – 1.5 điểm

• Part 3: Error correction – 5 câu – 5 điểm

• Part 4: Word formation – 5 câu – 5 điểm

• Remaining allocation (Reading-linked grammar weighting) – 7.5 điểm

C. Reading (25 điểm)

• Part 1: Cloze passage – 5 câu – 5 điểm

• Part 2: Cloze passage – 10 câu – 10 điểm

• Part 3: Reading comprehension – 10 câu – 10 điểm

D. Writing (30 điểm)

• Part 1: Sentence transformation – 5 câu – 10 điểm

• Part 2: Informal letter (~120 words) – 1 bài – 10 điểm

• Part 3: Opinion paragraph (150–170 words) – 1 bài – 10 điểm

Tải ngay Đề HSG Tiếng Anh 9 Hải Dương 2024–2025 có đáp án để ôn tập hiệu quả và bứt phá điểm số!

Nội dung đề thi

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

HẢI DƯƠNG

(Đề thi có 08 trang) KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 9

NĂM HỌC 2024-2025

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Ngày thi: 03/12/2024

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



CHÚ Ý:

Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi

Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án: A, hoặc B, C, D

Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài

(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì!)

A. LISTENING. (20 points)

Part 1. You will hear five short conversations. You will hear each conversation twice. For each conversation, choose the best answer A, B, C or D.

1. Where will the friends meet?

A. at the burger bar B. near the station

C. inside the cinema D. outside the cinema

2. Which sport will the boy do soon at the centre?

A. have swimming lessons B. have underwater driving lessons

C. have sailing lessons D. take waterskiing lessons

3. Which subject does the boy like best?

A. Computer technology B. Biology

C. Geography D. Physical education

4. Where do the boys decide to go?

A. skateboarding in the park. B. watching the film.

C. anywhere to get money. D. computer-game shop

5. What has the girl lost?

A. her mobile phone B. her pen C. her bag D. her purse

Part 2. You are going to hear part of an interview with a woman called Yvonne, who is a yoga instructor. For each question, write your answer A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. You will listen twice.

6. What does Yvonne say about her first yoga sessions?

A. Her first yoga sessions were too difficult.

B. She was amazed at how much she liked it.

C. Her classmates had to persuade her to follow.

D. She was happy to do that successfully.

7. When did Yvonne become a yoga instructor?

A. while she was teaching. B. after she had left her teaching job.

C. before renting a room in a leisure centre. D. when she was working at a leisure centre.

8. What does Yvonne like most about being an instructor?

A. seeing people overcome pain B. helping people discover what interests them

C. teaching people something new D. assisting people lose their weight

9. How has Yvonne’s health benefited from doing yoga?

A. Her memory has improved. B. Her stress levels have fallen.

C. Her blood pressure has improved. D. Her heart has got better.

10. What does Yvonne say about healthy eating?

A. We should avoid foods like biscuits and chocolate.

B. We should only use local produce for our diet.

C. We should take our time when eating.

D. Local produce usually costs more.

Part 3. You will hear a girl called Anna giving a presentation about the fashion blog that she’s created. Complete the sentences with a number or NO MORE THAN three words.

Anna – fashion blogger

After Anna was featured in magazine, she had more people visiting her blog. Anna now has a (11) __________ to help her develop the blog. When choosing clothes for her blog, the lifestyles of Anna’s readers is the most important point she considers. Anna thinks teenagers are likely to spend more on (12) __________ than on other items of clothing. Anna prefers buying her own clothes from (13) __________ rather than other places. The historical period that’s given Anna the greatest inspiration for her blog is the (14) __________. Clothes with stripped on them recently attracted attention to Anna’s blog. Anna mainly promotes clothes made of materials such as (15) __________ on her blog.

Part 4. You will hear a radio interview with a man called Harry Park, who is talking about the adventure travel company he runs. Decide if each statement below is True (T) or False (F).

16. Harry first became interested in adventure travel because his father gave him adventure stories to read.

17. A customer suggested the name for Harry’s company.

18. When Harry visits a place, he tries to take modern equipment.

19. Harry says that doing dangerous things is part of his job.

20. A river is Harry’s favorite place.

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 Points)

Part 1. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each question below. 

21. Janet will see you if you use the computer without permission. She has eyes like a __________.

A. hawk B. bird C. goose D. fox

22. __________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the Internet is widely recognized.

A. It is that computers B. That computers

C. Computers that D. That it’s computers

23. Marie Curie, __________, was awarded a Nobel Prize for her work.

A. was the scientist who discovered radium B. whose scientific discovery of radium

C. the scientist discovered radium D. the scientist who discovered radium

24. A new kind of learning app is reported __________ by a group of students coming from Vietnam last week.

A. to have invented B. invented C. to be invented D. to have been invented

25. When you get involved in a volunteer project, you are able to__________ your knowledge into practice.

A. take B. put C. bring D. push

26. After spending a weekend in the cold and rain, Thu began to feel unwell and eventually __________ with a high fever.

A. got down B. caught up C. came down D. put up

27. We all __________ support the view that education should be available to everyone, regardless of social background, age, or gender.

A. gradually B. strongly C. deeply D. heavily

28. Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 __________.

A. did its full extent realize B. that its full extent was realized

C. was its full extent realized D. the realization of its full extent

29. The __________ customers thanked the salesperson for the good service.

A. satisfaction B. satisfactory C. satisfied D. satisfying

Part 2.

a. Read the following announcement and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 30 to 32.

Dear Valued Customer,

For the last three years we have charged the same wholesale prices for our baked goods, including cakes, pies, cookies, and brownies. We regret that (30) __________ for our raw ingredients, such as sugar and fruit, have forced us to raise our prices by 5 percent effective August 1. We have made every attempt to avoid this price increase. (31) __________, we refuse to compromise on the quality of our products. Using the best ingredients available will allow us to provide the delicious desserts your restaurant guests have come to expect. We believe you will see that our products are still a great value. We (32) __________ your supports and look forward to continuing to serve you.

Sincerely,

Tony Corelli, Owner

30. A. sharply rise price

C. prices rise sharply B. rising sharp prices

D. sharply rising prices

31. A. However B. Therefore C. Although D. Moreover

32. A. terminate B. foresee C. anticipate D. appreciate

b. Read the following advertisement and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 35.

Lakeview Railway Onboard Bicycle Policy

Would you like to use your bicycle to explore the Lakeview Corridor Scenic Area? Our trains have the (33) __________ you need to safely transport your bike. When booking your ticket, just remember that reservations requiring for both you and your bicycle. Reserve your bicycle spot early. There are (34) __________ of storage racks on each train. You are responsible for stowing your bike securely. You must also supply your own bike lock. Lakeview Railway does not take responsibility for (35) __________ or damaged aboard our trains.

33. A. stock B. equipment C. property D. revenue

34. A. the limited amount

C. a great deal B. a limited number

D. a wide range

35. A. losing bicycles B. bicycles losing C. bicycles loss D. bicycles lost

Part 3. There are five mistakes in this passage. Find and correct them. An example has been done for you:

Example: who  whose

Edwin Hubble was an American astronomer who research led to discoveries about galaxies and the nature of the universe. He settled a long debate by demonstrating that the Andromeda Nebula was located outside our galaxy, established the islands universe theory, which states that galaxies exit outside of our own. His study of the distribution of galaxies resulted in Hubble’s Constant, a standard relationship among a galaxy’s distance from the earth and its speed of recession.

By 1925, Hubble had devised a classification system for the structure of galaxies and provided conclusive observationally evidence for the expansion of the universe. His work has pushed the one-hundred- inch Mount Wilson telescope beyond its capability and provided strong impetus for the construction of an instrument twice its size at Mount Palomar, which Hubble used during his last years of research. The telescope that bears his name was launched on a space shuttle in 1990 and orbits the earth, collecting datum about the size of the universe.

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words in brackets in the blanks to complete the sentences.

41. If you don’t remember Ann’s telephone number now, you can look it up in the __________. (DIRECT)

42. Experts say that the treatment has some unpleasant __________ including skin rashes and headaches.  (EFFECT)

43. The shells are so hard and they are virtually __________. (DESTROY) 

44. Whenever we plan to go on a picnic, it __________ rains. (VARY) 

45. In many developing countries, the shortage of food is the major cause of __________. (NUTRITIOUS)

C. READING (25 Points).

Part 1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

THE BENEFITS OF DAILY EXERCISE

Regular exercise is an essential part of maintaining good health. Not only does it help you stay physically fit, but it also contributes to mental well-being. Studies have shown that engaging in physical activities such as jogging, swimming, or cycling can significantly reduce stress levels and (46) __________. Regular exercise also boosts energy levels and improves overall sleep quality.

One of the primary benefits of exercise is its ability to strengthen your cardiovascular system. By regularly participating in aerobic activities, you can enhance your heart and lung function. (47) __________ cholesterol levels and improve overall circulation. For example, people who exercise regularly are less likely to suffer from heart disease or high blood pressure.

Exercise also plays a crucial role in managing weight. (48) __________ physical activity can help you maintain a healthy weight or lose excess pounds. Exercise helps to balance calories burned and calories consumed. Additionally, strength training exercises, such as lifting weights, can build muscle mass and increase your metabolism.

 Incorporating exercise into your daily routine doesn’t have to be difficult. (49) __________. Even simple activities like walking or taking the stairs instead of the elevator can make a big difference. The key is to find activities that you enjoy and can stick with consistently.

Finally, it’s important to set realistic goals and track your progress. Achieving personal fitness milestones can be a great source of motivation and satisfaction. Whether you’re aiming to run a certain distance or improve your strength, monitoring your achievements can keep you (50) __________ and on track.

46. 

A. to improve your mood B. improving your mood

C. improve your mood D. to improving your mood

47. 

A. Regularly exercise can help lowering B. Regular exercise can help lower

C. Regularly exercise can help lower D. Exercising regular can help to lower

48. 

A. When it combined with a balanced diet,

B. When combining with a balanced diet,

C. When you are combined with a balanced diet,

D. When combined with a balanced diet,

49. 

A. Incorporating even small amounts of physical activity into your day can be beneficial

B. That incorporates even small amounts of physical activity into your day can be benefits

C. Making incorporating even small amounts of physical activities into your day can be beneficial

D. Incorporating small amounts of physically active into your day can even be beneficial

50. 

A. motivation B. motivated C. to motivate D. motivate

Part 2. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, or D best fits each space.

CARNIVOROUS PLANTS

All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where the soil does not contain enough vital nutrients, some plants have adapted to (51) __________ their diets from another source. living organisms. Though they are few in number, carnivorous plants are (52) __________ fascinating beings that “eat” anything from one-celled organisms to insects in order to survive. They are commonly found in marshlands. Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of “traps” to ensnare prey, which they consume to make up for nutrients that may be missing from the soil. While there are over 400 species of carnivorous plants in the world today, some are more (53) __________ than others.

The most well-known of these plants are the snap traps, (54) __________ include the Venus flytrap. Snap traps are easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that have the ability to fold together. Inside the lobes, the surface is covered with tiny hairs that are (55) __________ to movement. When the plant’s prey brushes against the hairs, it triggers a closing mechanism that rapidly brings the two lobes together, trapping the prey (56) __________ inside. The response of the traps is phenomenal (57) __________ speed. the time between triggering the hairs and snapping shut is less than a second. As the prey struggles inside the trap, it only triggers more hairs, causing the leaves to tighten their (58) __________. The plant then secrets liquid chemicals from special glands into the trap to dissolve the prey and absorb all of its nutrients. Besides the Venus flytrap, only one other type of snap trap exists today, (59) __________ to as the waterwheel plant. The two share a common ancestor and differ only in a few ways. For instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant, while the flytrap is exclusively terrestrial. In addition, the flytrap feeds primarily on arthropods like spiders, while the waterwheel (60) __________ simple invertebrates, like certain types of plankton.

51. A. modify B. enlarge C. eliminate D. supplement

52. A. nonetheless B. therefore C. thereby D. hence

53. A. prevalent B. current C. domineering D. prevailing

54. A. where B. which C. that D. who

55. A. vulnerable B. liable C. prone D. sensitive

56. A. closely B. securely C. irreplaceably D. steadily

57. A. instead of B. in preference to C. in regard to D. in accordance with

58. A. fist B. hold C. seizure D. grip

59. A. denoted B. referred C. indicated D. implicated

60. A. lives off B. takes off C. puts off D. shows off

Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.

As our world continues to warm up, tropical dwellers depend heavily on cooling technologies to combat their habitat’s harsh elements. For most of Southeast Asia, this means cranking up the air- conditioning, thus taking a heavy toll on the already-fragile regional environment.

On Monday, Eco-Business – a media firm covering sustainability in Asia – presented the results of their study on cooling systems and energy efficiency at a conference in Bangkok, reports Reuters. The survey gathers insights from more than 420 managers and experts from government agencies and multinational companies in Southeast Asian countries, including Indonesia, Malaysia, Thailand, the Philippines and Vietnam. The results show that people in the region are increasingly attempting to cope with rising temperatures and deteriorating air quality by using inefficient air-conditioning systems, which only exacerbates the problems.

From 2000 to 2016, the region’s energy demands increased by 70%, brought about by rapid urbanization in countries like Vietnam, Myanmar, and Indonesia. The report added that air-conditioning contributed greatly to the rise in power use. By 2040, cooling technologies, such as refrigeration and air- conditioning, could constitute as much as 40% of Southeast Asia’s electricity use.

In Southeast Asia, where most countries are largely powered by coal-fired plants, a fondness for energy-guzzling cooling systems means burning more coal and worsening air pollution. However, despite the grim prospects, researchers also shared that there are ways to mitigate the problem. The International Energy Agency estimates that simply improving energy efficiency could provide ‘‘almost 40 percent of the emissions reductions needed to stay within the 2-degree Celsius ceiling for staving off the worst effects of climate change.”

To achieve this, the Eco-Business report urged policy-makers and businesses in the region to implement measures to improve the efficiency of cooling systems, curtail excessive airconditioning, and educate people on the impacts of inefficient air-con on the environment. Hill emphasized. “Governments need to drive this by putting in regulations that enforce more efficient forms of air-conditioning - making sure they’re not dumping grounds for old-fashioned products’’. Curbing excessive cooling in public buildings like offices, shopping malls and cinemas could also go a long way in more developed nations such as in Singapore, where 68% of respondents shared that they often work in settings that are too cold. Consumers, businesses and governments must also work together to move away from a reliance on coal-fired power stations, said Mark Radka, head of energy, climate and technology at UN Environment in Paris, who also worked on the report. ‘‘The ASEAN countries as a whole should try to up their game,” he added.

61. What is the purpose of paragraph 1?

A. To discuss the seriousness of the issue.

B. To provide an illustration of the issue.

C. To introduce the opinions related to the issue.

D. To provide background information on the issue.

62. The phrase taking a heavy toll in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by __________.

A. being responsible B. damaging heavily

C. paying much money D. raising people’s concern

63. According to the passage, what research area does Eco-Business specialize in?

A. Sustainability B. Cooling systems C. Energy efficiency D. Air quality

64. What is the outcome of the survey conducted in five Southeast Asian countries?

A. Less domestic electricity consumption is greatly attributed to using air-conditioning.

B. People are increasingly using efficient air-conditioning systems.

C. Residents are using inefficient air-conditioning systems.

D. Most countries are sparsely powered by coal-fired plants, a fondness for energy-guzzling cooling systems.

65. The word grim in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to __________.

A. daunting B. pessimistic C. reasonable D. optimistic

66. The word this in paragraph 5 refers to __________.

A. improving energy efficiency B. staying in the 2-degree Celsius

C. reducing 40 percent of the emissions D. staving off the worst effects of climate change

67. The word curbing in paragraph 5 is CLOSEST in meaning to __________.

A. elevating B. restricting C. dominating D. boosting

68. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT MENTIONED by Eco-Business as a solution to the problem?

A. Improving the efficiency of air-conditioning

B. Getting rid of old fashioned air conditioners

C. Raising people’s awareness of the problem

D. Limiting the overuse of air conditioning

69. Which of the following is TRUE according to the article?

A. Cooling technologies could account for 70% of Southeast Asia’s electricity by 2040.

B. Nearly half of respondents in Singapore shared that they often work in cold settings.

C. The International Energy Agency estimates that energy efficiency could contribute to over two third of the emissions reductions.

D. Over 420 managers and experts from government agencies and multinational companies in five Countries get involved in Eco-business’ survey.

70. Which of the following would be the best title for this article?

A. Public Buildings in Southeast Asian Developed Countries. Uncomfortably Cold.

B. Southeast Asia’s Overuse of Air-conditioning is Affecting Household Savings.

C. Southeast Asia’s Love for Air conditioning is Creating Pressures on the Local Environment.

D. Southeast Asia Faces Energy Crisis as People Increasingly Depend on Air-conditioning.

D. WRITING. (30 points)

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentences printed before it.

71. The number of students attending the universities for teachers has risen sharply this year.

 There has ____________________________________________________________________

72. “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” Helen’s boss said angrily to her.

 Helen’s boss __________________________________________________________________

73. The reason they didn’t give him the job was because he couldn’t use a computer.

 Had it _______________________________________________________________________

74. Mr. Ba suddenly thought that he might have misunderstood his son.

 It crossed ____________________________________________________________________

75. The result of the test didn’t come up to his teacher’s expectations.

 The result of the test fell _________________________________________________________

Part 2. This is part of a letter from one of your penfriends, an excellent monitor:

“Some classmates of mine are crazy about their idols. They spend most of their time following their idols’ facebooks, collecting the information of their private lives or the merchandise and talking about these idols during their school time, which neglects their studies and social activities. I am really worried about this. What should I do now? Could you give me some advice?”.

In about 120 words, write a letter to reply to him.

You are required to sign your name as Mary and begin the letter like this. 

Dear Peter,

Part 3. In the globalized era, Vietnamese cultural values and traditional festivals have been lost gradually. What should be done to preserve them?

Write a paragraph of about 150 - 170 words to express your opinion.

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