ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT, QUẢNG NAM NĂM HỌC 2021 – 2022 Môn thi TIẾNG ANH 11 (CHUYÊN)

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Tải xuống: ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT, QUẢNG NAM NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022 Môn thi TIẾNG ANH 11 (CHUYÊN)

 

Trích dẫn nội dung "ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT, QUẢNG NAM NĂM HỌC 2021 – 2022 Môn thi TIẾNG ANH 11 (CHUYÊN)":

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH QUẢNG NAM 

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi gồm có 12 trang) 

KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022 

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 11 (CHUYÊN) Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Ngày thi: 22/3/2022 

WRITE YOUR ANSWERS ON THE ANSWER SHEET 

SECTION I: LISTENING (40 POINTS) 

PART 1. For questions 1 - 5, you will hear part of a radio program in which two people, Sally  White and Martin Jones, are discussing the popularity of audio books and the problems involved  with abridging books before taping them. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D (10 points). 

You will hear the recording twice. 

1. Sally feels that the main advantage of audio books is that they _____. 

A. encourage children to read more 

B. make more books accessible to children 

C. save parents from having to read to children 

D. are read by experienced actors 

2. What does Martin say about the women in the shop? 

A. She no longer worries about long journeys. 

B. Her children used to argue about what to listen to. 

C. She no longer takes her children to France. 

D. Her children don’t like staying in hotels. 

3. In the United States, there is a demand for audio books because people there _____.  A. were the first to obtain audio books 

 B. have to drive long distances 

 C. are used to listening to the spoken word on the radio 

 D. feel that they do not have time to read books 

4. According to Sally, successful abridgements depend on _____. 

A. their closeness to the original 

B. the length of the original 

C. the style of the author 

D. the type of story 

5. Books are not commissioned specifically for the audio market because _____. A. writers are too busy working for the BBC 

B. such books have failed in the past 

C. people only want familiar stories 

D. there are not enough people buying audio books 


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PART 2: You’ll hear a radio interview about the problem of the homeless in London. Listen and  answer questions 6 - 10. USE NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer (10 points).  6. Who is Mary Graham? 

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 7. Why don’t landlords like renting accommodation to families with children? …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 8. What do many people think the government should do to solve the problem? …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 9. What does a scarcity of available property cause? 

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 10. What do they give the homeless every night? 

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………… PART 3: Listen to a news bulletin. For questions 11 - 20, complete each of the blanks with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER (20 points). 

Many of the bombs went off at churches during (11) _____. Although no individual or group has  claimed responsibility, the government is now blaming a little - known jihadist group. Most of the areas were (12) _____to the public, and even the media was not allowed to enter into  the location. 

So what we saw from outside was complete (13) _____. The first thing you see when you go to  the churches is the glass scattered all over the ground. And the walls have been perforated with  (14) _____that were thrown across the room and the premises after the explosion. Even the altars  have been (15) _____small metal pieces. 

In addition to these attacks on churches that targeted (16) _____ during Easter, there were also  attacks on high - end hotels. 

Many of the people started (17) _____ images of those who had died, images that they had put up  right before the attack. 

There were several occasions where the public was evacuated so that the police can conduct search  operations. It started off fine, but tension has grown. And now it has come to a point that curfew has been (18) _____ again for the second day. 

There's been a (19) _____. 

The police have not divulged information as to what their identities are or whether they belong to  any organization. 

What they're saying is any vital information can (20) _____ their investigation. SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (40 points) 

PART 1: For questions 21 - 40, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following  questions (20 points). 

21. Karen was terribly nervous before the interview but she managed to pull herself _____ and  act confidently. 

A. through B. over C. together D. off 22. When Mr. Pike ran out of money, he _____ his mother for help. 

A. fell in with B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell back on 23. The train _____ the bay and then turned inland for twenty miles. 

A. skirted B. coasted C. edged D. sided

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24. Beyond all _____, it was Alice who gave away our secret. 

A. fail B. conclusion C. dispute D. contradiction 25. The brother and sister were _____ over who would get to inherit the beach house. A. at large B. at odds C. at a standstill D. at a loose end 26. The police _____ a good deal of criticism over their handling of the demonstration. A. came in for B. brought about C. went down with D. put forward 27. The house that we used to live in is in a very _____ state.  

A. negligent B. neglected C. negligible D. neglectful  28. Stars shine because of _____ produced by the nuclear reactions taking place within them. A. the amount of light and heat is B. which the amount of light and heat C. the amount of light and heat that it is D. the amount of light and heat 29. Harry’s new jacket doesn’t seem to fit him very well. He _____ it on before he bought it. A. must have tried B. should have tried  

C. needn’t have tried D. might have tried 

30. It was so quiet; you could have heard a _____ drop. 

A. pin B. feather C. leaf D. sigh 31. I don’t agree with what he’s doing, but _____. 

A. let his hair down B. let off stream 

C. live and let live D. live by his wits 

32. Of the two films we watched yesterday, Titanic is _____. 

A. more interesting B. the more interesting 

C. the most interesting D. less interesting 

33. The woman was _____ from hospital yesterday only a week after her operation. A. ejected B. expelled C. evicted D. discharged 34. The two boys really _____ it off from the moment they met. 

A. hit B. struck C. made D. put 35. At first Tim insisted he was right, but then began to _____. 

A. follow up B. back down C. drop off D. break up 36. His sentence has been commuted to three months on the _____ of failing health. A. bases B. causes C. grounds D. reasons 37. They threatened to cancel the whole project _____. 

 A. at a stroke B. on the whole C. of set purpose D. thick and fast 38. She didn’t _____ the idea of having to go to the party on her own. 

A. savor B. agree C. relish D. delight 39. Every delicacy Miss Cook produces is done _____. 

A. there and then B. at will C. sooner or later D. to a turn 40. He _____ the cart before the horse by buying the ring before he had proposed to her. A. fastened B. tied C. put D. coupled 

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PART 2: For questions 41 - 50, read the text below. Use the correct form of each of the words  given in parentheses to fill in the blank (20 points). 

There are a myriad of lifestyle issues affecting the youth of today. Such is the pressure heaped on  many school - goers to achieve academic excellence by their parents that these (41) _____ (REAL) expectations are causing children to become (42) ____(HOPE) depressed. Indeed, some,  in their desperation to escape and their sense of guilt at being unable reach the levels of success  demanded of them by their (43) _____ (PUSH) parents, either rebel in what is tantamount to a  cry for help, or, worse still, engage in (44) _____ (HARM). It is no coincidence that suicide rates,  especially amongst young males, have been rising steadily for some time now. These are tough  times to be a teen. 

Then there are those who get hooked on the internet; the (45) _____ (VIRTUE) world becomes  their reality. For these teens, their social circle shrinks (46) _____ (DRAMA) until, at last, their  friendship sphere is limited solely to their online (47) _____ (BUD). Not alone do they commonly  suffer from sleep (48) _____ (DEPRIVE) on account of their destructive addiction to game play  and net - surfing, their behavior may become so erratic and peculiar over time as to be considered  (49) _____ (SOCIAL). And while they sit at their computer screens hidden away in splendid  isolation from the real world, such is the lack of exercise they get that their calorie intake far  exceeds what is necessary for them to maintain a stable weight. In essence, due to their sedentary  lifestyle, their weight (50) _____ (ROCKET) until such time as they become morbidly obese. 

SECTION 3: READING (60 points) 

PART 1: For questions 51 - 60, read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C,  or D) best fits each blank (10 points). 

ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES IN DEVELOPING WORLD 

The issues for (51) _____ economies are a little more straightforward. The desire to build on  undeveloped land is not (52) _____ out of desperation or necessity, but is a result of the relentless  march of progress. Cheap labour and a relatively highly - skilled workforce make these countries  highly competitive and there is a flood of inward investment, particularly from (53) _____ looking  to take advantage of the low wages before the cost and standard of living begin to rise. It is factors  such as these that are making many Asian economies extremely attractive when viewed as  investment opportunities at the moment. Similarly, in Africa, the relative (54) _____ of precious  metals and natural resources tends to attract a lot of (55) _____ companies and a whole sub - industry develops around and is completely dependent on this foreign - direct investment. It is  understandable that countries that are the focus of this sort of attention can lose sight of the  environmental implications of large - scale industrial development, and this can have devastating  consequences for the natural world. And it is a (56) _____ cycle because the more industrially  active a nation becomes, the greater the demand for and harvesting of natural resources. For some,  the environmental issues, though they can hardly be ignored, are viewed as a (57) _____ concern.  Indeed, having an environmental conscience or taking environmental matters into consideration  when it comes to decisions on whether or not to build rubber - tree (58) _____ or grow biofuel  crops would be quite (59) _____ indeed. For those involved in such schemes it is a pretty black - and - white issue. And, for vast (60) _____ of land in Latin America, for example, it is clear that  the welfare of the rainforests matters little to local government when vast sums of money can be  made from cultivating the land.

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51. A. emerging B. urgent C. convergent D. resurgent 52. A. grown B. born C. bred D. arisen 53. A. multinationals B. migrants C. continentals D. inter - continentals 54. A. premonition B. abundance C. amplitude D. accumulation 55. A. exploitation B. exploration C. survey D. research 56. A. vacuous B. viscous C. vexatious D. vicious 57. A. parallel B. extrinsic C. peripheral D. exponential 58. A. plantations B. homesteads C. ranches D. holdings 59. A. prescriptive B. prohibitive C. prospective D. imperative 60. A. regions B. plots C. tracts D. sectors  

PART 2: For questions 61 - 70, fill each blank of the numbered blanks in the passage with  ONE suitable word (15 points). 

THE LADY WHO LIKED ADVENTURE 

It was one of those impulse buys that can happen while shopping. Mary Bruce was in London  looking for a nice new dress when she noticed a showroom with a light aircraft for sale at a terribly  reasonable price. Mrs. Bruce went away to try on a dress. It did not suit her. The plane (61) _____.  That moment in 1930 was the beginning of an adventure for an intrepid English eccentric who  became the most inexperienced pilot ever to circumnavigate the globe. After qualifying for her  pilot’s (62) _____ in the minimum 40 hours’ flying, she took off the same year on a 16,500 - mile  flight round the world. 

Mrs. Bruce was (63) _____ stranger to adventure. She loved anything with an element of danger  in it. She was among the first women in Britain to buy a motorcycle and she (64) _____ to driving  racing cars when she got (65) _____ to the racing driver Victor Bruce in 1926. As a couple, they  once drove as far as they could into the Arctic Circle before they ran out of road. In 1929, she set  a record by (66) _____ 674 nautical miles in a powerboat. 

Then (67) _____ the moment she spotted the plane. She later recalled: ‘I asked the price, then I  left the shop. A little further down the street I saw a marvelous dress in (68) _____ window, so I  went in. Well, the dress did not suit me one (69) _____, so I went back to the aeroplane showroom.  I asked the man, “Will this take me round the world?” He said, “Of course it will, madam.” (70) 

_____ a week, she was flying solo. 

PART 3: For questions 71 - 80, read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B,  C, or D) to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (10 points). 

RECREATING SAILS USED ON VIKING SHIPS 

The people known as the Vikings, from Norway, are famous for sailing round much of the  world – but how did they do it? Nancy Bazilchuk investigates. 

Since the middle of the 1800s, archaeologists have been studying a series of well - preserved Viking  ships, excavated from grave mounds or raised from the bottom of narrow rivers leading to the sea.  What they were missing was the ships’ sails: such old cloth rarely survives in the environments that  preserve wood. But after delving into old documents, John Godal and Eric Andersen from the  Viking Ship Museum at Roskilde in Denmark decided old sails might be preserved elsewhere. They 

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found a Viking law dating from about AD 1000 which stated: “The man on whom responsibility  falls shall store the sail in the church. If the church burns, this man is responsible for the sail…”.  They struck it lucky in the church at Trondenes. Crammed between the walls and the roof was a  fragment of woolen sail. It may once have been put in the church for safety. 

Amy Lightfoot, head of the Tommervik Textile Trust in Hitra, Norway, had been studying coastal  people’s use of a tough, lanolin - rich wool to weave vadmal, a thick woolen cloth used to make  durable clothing. When the coastal Museum in Hitra decided in 1991 to build a replica of a boat  used locally in the 1930s, it decided that it should have a woolen sail based on the fragment from  Trondenes, and the Lightfoot was chosen for the task. There was only one catch: the knowledge  needed to produce such an object had perished with the sails themselves. ‘But people still made  vadmal, and we could talk to them about that,’ says Lightfoot. 

Even the simplest sail is a highly complex tensile structure. The fabric must be heavy enough to  withstand strong winds, but not so heavy that it slows the ship. The trick to achieving this balance  lies in the strength of the different threads, the tightness their twist and their water tightness. The  discovery of the Trondenes sail meant that these intricacies could be examined in Viking - age  cloth. Analysis of the sail showed that its strength came from the long, coarse outer hairs of a  primitive breed of the northern European short - tailed sheep called villsau. These can still be  found in Finland and Iceland. They do not need shelter in winter, as their wool is saturated with  water - repellent lanolin. The quality of their wool owes much to their diet, which is new grass in  summer and heather in winter. Historical and radiocarbon date from as early as 1400 BC show  that Norwegian coastal farmers burnt the heather every year in spring. This kept down the heather  and it also prevented the invasion of young pine trees that would eventually turn the farmers’  grazing land to forest. The villsau thrived on the summer grass and in fact helped to encourage its  growth. The flocks gained enough weight to survive on heather over the winter.  

When it came to making a sail for the Coastal Museum’s boat, the Sara Kjerstine, Lightfoot was  able to provide a limited amount of villsau wool from a flock of 25 sheep she kept herself. The  remainder came from a modern relative called the spelsau. Both types of wool had to be worked  by hand to preserve the lalonin and to separate the long, strong outer hairs from the weaker, inner  wool. This was not a trivial undertaking: the Sara Kjerstine required an 85 - square - metre sail  that consumed 2,000 kilograms of wool, a year’s production from 2,000 sheep. It took Lightfoot  and three helpers six months to pull the wool from the villsau. Spinning the wool into 165,000  meters of yarn and weaving the sail took another two years. 

In 1997 Lightfoot joined forces with the Viking Ship Museum at Roskilde. They wanted a woolen  sail for a replica they were building of a cargo ship. This time Lightfoot took a short cut: instead  of pulling out the wool, it was sheared. Nevertheless, as Lightfoot spent endless hours working  the wool, she thought about the enormous amount of time and material needed to produce just one  sail. Yet the Danish king Knut II is believed by historians to have had over 1,700 ships in 1085.  ‘You think about the Vikings’ western expansion,’ she says. ‘And you think, maybe the sheep  had something to do with it. And unless there were women ashore making sails, Vikings could  never have sailed anywhere.’ 

Lightfoot’s sails have provided some unexpected insights into handling of Viking ships. For  example, woolen sails power Viking ships about 10 per cent faster upwind than modern sails, and  allow the ships to be sailed far closer to the wind than anyone guessed. In September, the Roskilde  museum’s latest ship, a reproduction based on the Skuldelev 2 wreck, is due to make its maiden  voyage all the way to Ireland, but despite at least 1,000 years of ‘progress’, this ship will have to  do without a woolen sail. Unlike the Vikings, the museum doesn’t have the huge flocks of wild  sheep or an army of women to provide the material it needs.


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71. What point does the writer make about finding Viking sails? 

A. Written records did not provide any useful information. 

B. Most Viking sails were believed to have been destroyed the fire. 

C. Viking sails had frequently been reused for other purposes. 

D. Archaeologists had not realized where sails might be kept. 

72. When Amy Lightfoot was asked to make her first woolen sail, her problem was that _____. A. she could obtain no first - hand information about the construction of such sails B. she had to substitute a poorer quality material for Viking sailcloth 

C. there were no other people in the textile field that she could consult 

D. the Coastal Museum had unrealistic expectations of who could make it 73. The word “saturated” in paragraph 3 can be replaced by _____. 

A. brought B. made C. filled D. linked 74. According to the passage, the word ‘This’ in paragraph 3 refers to _____. A. the quality of the wool 

B. historical and radiocarbon data 

C. burning the heather 

D. keeping down the heather 

75. What is told about the sail in paragraph 3? 

A. The quality of the cloth depended on the type of boat. 

B. The wool used was taken from one type of sheep. 

C. The wool required the addition of a waterproof substance. 

D. In some ways the cloth used was superior to modern textile. 

76. What is told about land management in paragraph 3? 

A. Farmers did not appreciate the long - term results of preventing tree growth. B. Farmers knew it was essential to encourage the spread of heather. 

C. Disasters such as fire sometimes interfered with land management. 

D. Summer grass became more plentiful because of the sheep. 

77. Why did it take Amy Lightfoot so long to make the sail for the Sara Kjerstine? A. One type of wool she used was of inferior quality. 

B. She had underestimated the number of sheep required. 

C. It was not possible to use modern production methods in the process. D. The sail was of a large size than the one at Trondenes. 

78. According to the passage, the word ‘trivial’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____. A. insignificant B. important C. outstanding D. serious 79. In paragraph 5, what does Amy Lightfoot imply? 

A. The traditional interpretation of Danish history was misleading. 

B. Archaeologists had not appreciated the number of ships the Vikings had. C. The amount of time spent on the making of the Sara Kjerstine sail was unnecessary. D. The role of women in Viking expansion to the West has been overlooked. 

80. What point is exemplified by the reference to the Roskilde museum’s latest ship? A. It is ironic that the museum cannot replicate the same quality cloth that the Vikings had. B. It is unlikely that the Vikings would have sailed on the same route to Ireland. C. It is possible that the replica ship may succeed where the original failed. D. It is surprising that modern sails are not more similar in structure to traditional ones

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PART 4: For questions 81 - 90, read the passage and do the tasks that follow (10 points).  WILLPOWER 

A. Although willpower does not shape our decisions, it determines whether and how long we  can follow through on them. It almost single - handedly determines life outcomes. Interestingly,  research suggests the general population is indeed aware of how essential willpower is to their  wellbeing; survey participants routinely identify a ‘lack of willpower’ as the major impediment  to making beneficial life changes. There are, however, misunderstandings surrounding the nature  of willpower and how we can acquire more of it. There is a widespread misperception, for  example, that increased leisure time would lead to subsequent increases in willpower. 

B. Although the concept of willpower is often explained through single - word terms, such as  ‘resolve’ or ‘drive’, it refers in fact to a variety of behaviors and situations. There is a common  perception that willpower entails resisting some kind of a ‘treat’, such as a sugary drink or a lazy  morning in bed, in favor of decisions that we know are better for us, such as drinking water or  going to the gym. Of course, this is a familiar phenomenon for all. Yet willpower also involves  elements such as overriding negative thought processes, biting your tongue in social situations, or  persevering through a difficult activity. At the heart of any exercise of willpower, however, is the  notion of ‘delayed gratification’, which involves resisting immediate satisfaction for a course that  will yield greater or more permanent satisfaction in the long run. 

C. Scientists are making general investigations into why some individuals are better able than  others to delay gratification and thus employ their willpower, but the genetic or environmental  origins of this ability remain a mystery for now. Some groups who are particularly vulnerable to reduced willpower capacity, such as those with addictive personalities, may claim a biological  origin for their problems. What is clear is that levels of willpower typically remain consistent over  time (studies tracking individuals from early childhood to their adult years demonstrate a  remarkable consistency in willpower abilities). In the short term, however, our ability to draw on  willpower can fluctuate dramatically due to factors such as fatigue, diet and stress. Indeed,  research by Matthew Gailliot suggests that willpower, even in the absence of physical activity,  both requires and drains blood glucose levels, suggesting that willpower operates more or less  like a ‘muscle’, and, like a muscle, requires fuel for optimum functioning.  

D. These observations lead to an important question: if the strength of our willpower at the age  of thirty - five is somehow pegged to our ability at the age of four, are all efforts to improve our  willpower certain to prove futile? According to newer research, this is not necessarily the case.  Gregory M. Walton, for example, found that a single verbal cue – telling research participants  how strenuous mental tasks could ‘energize’ them for further challenging activities – made a  profound difference in terms of how much willpower participants could draw upon to complete  the activity. Just as our willpower is easily drained by negative influences, it appears that  willpower can also be boosted by other prompts, such as encouragement or optimistic self - talk. 

E. Strengthening willpower thus relies on a two - pronged approach: reducing negative  influences and improving positive ones. One of the most popular and effective methods simply  involves avoiding willpower depletion triggers, and is based on the old adage, ‘out of sight, out  of mind’. In one study, workers who kept a bowl of enticing candy on their desks were far more  likely to indulge than those who placed it in a desk drawer. It also appears that finding sources of  motivation from within us may be important. In another study, Mark Muraven found that those  who felt compelled by an external authority to exert self - control experienced far greater rates of 


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willpower depletion than those who identified their own reasons for taking a particular course of  action. This idea that our mental convictions can influence willpower was borne out by Veronika  Job. Her research indicates that those who think that willpower is a finite resource exhaust their  supplies of this commodity long before those who do not hold this opinion. 

F. Willpower is clearly fundamental to our ability to follow through on our decisions but, as  psychologist Roy Baumeister has discovered, a lack of willpower may not be the sole impediment  every time our good intentions fail to manifest themselves. A critical precursor, he suggests, is  motivation – if we are only mildly invested in the change we are trying to make, our efforts are  bound to fall short. This may be why so many of us abandon our New Year’s Resolutions – if  these were actions we really wanted to take, rather than things we felt we ought to be doing, we  would probably be doing them already. In addition, Muraven emphasizes the value of monitoring  progress towards a desired result, such as by using a fitness journal, or keeping a record of savings  toward a new purchase. The importance of motivation and monitoring cannot be overstated.  Indeed, it appears that, even when our willpower reserves are entirely depleted, motivation alone  may be sufficient to keep us on the course we originally chose. 

Questions 81 - 84: Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading  Passage?  

Write:  

TRUE (T) if the statement agrees with the information  

FALSE (F) if the statement contradicts the information  

NOT GIVEN (NG) if there is no information on this 

81. Willpower is the most significant factor in determining success in life.  82. Researchers have studied the genetic basis of willpower. 

83. Willpower mostly applies to matters of diet and exercise.  

84. Regular physical exercise improves our willpower ability. 

Questions 85 - 90. Look at the following statements and the list of researchers below. Match  each statement with the correct person in the list of people A - E. You may use some letters  more than once. 

This researcher … 

85. identified a key factor that is necessary for willpower to function.  

86. suggested that willpower is affected by our beliefs.  

87. examined how our body responds to the use of willpower.  

88. discovered how important it is to make and track goals.  

89. found that taking actions to please others decreases our willpower.  

90. found that willpower can increase through simple positive thoughts. 

List of People  

A. Matthew Gailliot  

B. Gregory M. Walton  

C. Mark Muraven  

D. Veronika Job  

E. Roy Baumeister 


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Part 5: For questions 91 - 100, read the article about books, choose from the publishers (A - E).  The publishers may be chosen more than once (15 points)

DO REVIEWS SELL BOOKS? 

We asked five leading British publishers about the effect of the reviews of a book on its  commercial success. Here is what they said. 

Publisher A 

Reviewers are absolutely key for publishers – the first part of the newspaper we turn to. The Book  Marketing Council found some years ago that when questioned on why they had bought a  particular book, more people cited reviews than any other prompting influence (advertisements,  word of mouth, bookshop display, etc…) 

Authors’ responses to reviews are slightly different from publishers. Both are devastated by no  reviews, but publishers are usually more equable about the bad reviews, judging that column  inches are what matter and that a combination of denunciation and ecstatic praise can actually  create sales as readers decide to judge for themselves. 

Publishers probably get the most pleasure from a review which precisely echoes their own  response to a book – they are often the first ‘reader’. 

Publisher B 

While publishers and the press fairly obviously have a common interest in the nature of book  review pages, one also needs to remember that their requirement substantially differ: a newspaper  or magazine needs to provide its readers with appropriately entertaining material; a publishing  house wants to see books, preferably its own, reviewed, preferably favorably. 

Without any question, book reviewing is ‘better’ – more diverse, less elitist – more than 40 years  ago, when I began reading review pages. That said, there is still a long - grumbled - about tendency  to neglect the book medium read by a majority –named paperbacks. The weekly roundups aren’t  really adequate even if conscientiously done. And even originally paperbacks only rarely receive  serious coverage. 

But publishers shouldn’t complain too much. Reviews are an economical way of getting a book  and an author known. There is no question that a lively account of a new book by a trusted name  can generate sales – even more if there are several of them. 

Publisher C 

Reviews are the oxygen of literary publishing; without them, we would be cut off from an essential  life - source. Because the books we publish are generally not by ‘brand - name’ authors, whose  books sell with or without reviews, and because we seldom advertise, we depend on the space  given to our books by literary editors.  

When the reviews are favorable, of course, they are worth infinitely more than any advertisement.  The reader knows that the good review is not influenced by the publisher’s marketing budget: it  is the voice of reason, and there is no doubt that it helps to sell books. Publishers themselves often  claim that they look for size rather than content in reviews. 

The actual effect of reviews on sales is inscrutable heart of the whole business. Good reviews can  launch a book and a career and occasionally lift sales into the stratosphere; but never entirely on  their own. There has to be some fusion with other elements – a world - of - mouth network of  recommendation, a robust response from the book trade, clever marketing. 

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Publisher D 

The relationship in Britain between publishing and reviewing? I wish I knew! In the United States  it’s simple: The New York Times can make or break a book with a single review. Here, though,  the people in the bookshops often don’t appear to take much notice of them. 

It sometimes takes 20 years of consistently outstanding reviews for people to start reading a good  writer’s work. Yet some of the most dismally received books, or books not yet reviewed, are the  biggest sellers of all. So it’s all very unpredictable, though non - fiction is less so. 

Mind you, non - fiction does allow reviewers to indulge themselves by telling us what they know  about the subject of the book under review rather than about the book itself. 

Publisher E 

Of course, all publishers and all the writers dream of long, uniformly laudatory reviews. But do  they sell books? I once published a biography. The reviews were everything I could have craved.  The book was a flop – because everyone thought that, by reading the lengthy reviews, they need  not buy the book. 

Does the name of the reviewer make a difference? Thirty years ago, if certain reviewers praised  a book, the public seemed to take note and obey their recommendations. These days, it is as much  the choice of an unexpected reviewer, or the sheep power or wit or originality of the review, which  urges the prospective buyer into the bookshop. 

Which publisher(s) 


Questions Publisher(s)


91 



say that some books succeed whether they are reviewed or not? 

92 


mentions reviewers taking the opportunity to display their ơn  expertise?

93 


describes how good reviews can contribute to the commercial  failure of a book?

94 


says that writers and publishers do not react to negative reviews  in the same way? 

95 


feels that certain books are frequently overlooked by reviewers? 

96 


talks about the sales of some books being stimulated by mixed  reviews? 

97 



suggest that the length of a review may be more important to  publishers than what it actually says? 

98 



refer to the influence of reviews written by well-known people?

99 


says the effect of reviews on sales does not have a regular  pattern?

100 


believes there has been an improvement in the standard of book  reviews?



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SECTION IV: WRITING (60 points) 

PART 1: The chart below shows the proportion of renewable energy of the total supply in  2010, 2014 and 2017 (20 points). 

Renewable Energy of the total supply 

90 

80 

e g

a

t

n

e

c

r

e

P

70 

60 

50 

40 

30 

20 

10 

Singapore South Korea China Japan 

2010 2014 2017


Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons  where relevant. Write no more than 150 words. 

PART 2: (40 points) Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic: 

Many people argue that in order to improve the quality of education, high school students are  encouraged to make comments or even criticism of their teachers. Others think it will lead to a  loss of respect and discipline in the classroom.  

Discuss both views and give your own opinion. 

Give reasons and specific examples to support your answer. 

………………….. the end…………………….. 

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