Cuộc thi Olympic truyền thống 30 tháng 4 là một cuộc thi học sinh giỏi hàng năm dành cho học sinh khối 10 và 11 của khu vực phía Nam. Cuộc thi này được sáng lập bởi trường THPT Chuyên Lê Hồng Phong và được tổ chức lần đầu tiên vào năm 1995. Đây là một sân chơi giáo dục uy tín, giúp các học sinh thử thách và nâng cao kiến thức, kỹ năng trong môn Tiếng Anh. Tại website Tài liệu diệu kỳ, bạn có thể tải xuống tuyển tập đề thi Chính thức + Đề thi đề nghị, đề xuất kỳ thi Olympic 30 tháng 4 năm 2019 khối 10 và 11 môn Tiếng Anh có đầy đủ đáp án dưới dạng file PDF và word. Tài liệu này cung cấp những đề thi chính thức và đề thi đề nghị từ cuộc thi, giúp các bạn học sinh làm quen với cấu trúc và kiểu dáng câu hỏi thường xuất hiện trong kỳ thi chính thức Olympic 30 tháng 4 những năm tới.
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STT NỘI DUNG TRANG
1 K10 - Trường THPT chuyên Lê Hồng Phong – Tp HCM 2
2 K11 - Trường THPT chuyên Lê Hồng Phong – Tp HCM 13
3 K10 - Trường THPT chuyên Thoại Ngọc Hầu – An Giang 24
4 K10 - Trường THPT chuyên Trần Hưng Đạo – Bình Thuận 34
5 K10 - Đề thi đề nghị 45
6 K10 - Trường THPT chuyên Nguyễn Du – Đăk lăk 56
7 K10-11 _ Đề thi đề nghị 2018 - 2019 66
8 K10 - Trường THPT Vị Thanh – Hậu Giang 77
9 K10 - Trường THPT Quang Trung – Bình Phước 87
10 K10 - Trường THPT Nguyễn Đình Chiểu – Đồng Tháp 98
11 K10 - Kỳ thi Olympic 107
12 K10 - Trường THPT Nguyễn Bỉnh Khiêm – Vĩnh Long 117
13 K11 - Trường THPT chuyên Tiền Giang – Tiền Giang 126
14 K11 - Trường THPT chuyên Lê Quý Đôn – Ninh Thuận 138
15 K11- Trường THPT chuyên Huỳnh Mẫn Đạt – Kiên Giang 148
16 K11 - Kỳ thi Olympic 157
17 K11 - Trường THPT chuyên Nguyễn Du – Đăk lăk 167
18 K11 - Trường THPT chuyên Lê Quý Đôn – Khánh Hòa 178
19 K11 - Trường THPT chuyên Thăng Long – Đà Lạt – Lâm Đồng 189
20 K11 - Trường THPT chuyên Vị Thanh – Hậu Giang 201
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
LÊ HỒNG PHONG
KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30/4
LẦN THỨ XXV – NĂM 2019
Môn thi: Anh văn - Khối: 10
Ngày thi: 06/04/2019
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
Đề này có 08 trang.
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
* Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm (MULTIPLE CHOICE) trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và phần tự
luận (WRITTEN TEST) trên phiếu trả lời tự luận.
* Trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô thêm 2 số 00 vào trước số báo danh (bằng bút chì).
Phần mã đề thi trên phiếu trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô vào ô 001.
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
1. ______ happy in the new school, he missed his old friends.
A. Usually B. Although C. Being D. Even
2. ______ we leave at 3:00, we should get there by 5:30.
A. Assuming B. Having assumed C. To assume D. Assumed
3. I am sorry to keep you waiting. I hope you ______ long.
A. are not waiting B. don’t wait
C. haven’t waited D. haven’t been waiting
4. It's about time you ______ the balcony. It's covered in leaves and dust.
A. cleaned B. had cleaned
C. to be cleaned D. to have cleaned
5. Don't be silly! That ______ possibly be David Beckham!
A. mustn't B. shouldn't C. won't D. can't
6. –“I locked myself out of my apartment. I didn't know what to do.”
–“You ______ your roommate.”
A. could have called B. may have called
C. would have called D. must have called
7. –“Did the principal of the school answer you yet?”
–“No, but ______ I hear from him by 5pm, I’ll let you know.”
A. might B. could C. would D. should
8. ______ help me make this decision. I’m just so unsure of which direction to take for my future.
A. I’d sooner you will B. I wish you will C. If only you could D. I’d rather you
9. ______ we have enough money, where would you like to travel this summer?
A. So that B. Provided that C. Despite the fact that D. Unless
10. Twenty people were arrested during the demonstration, of ______ four were charged with
A. who B. whom C. which D. them
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the
11. She was very appreciative ______ all the support she got from her friends.
A. of B. for C. on D. with
12. Her latest novel is coming ______ in paperback soon.
A. across B. off C. out D. about
13. As you’ve arrived late, you’ll have to ______ the time you have lost.
A. make up to B. do up to C. do up for D. make up for
14. Mary is jealous ______ her sister because she is much more popular.
A. on B. of C. for D. with
15. Your skirt needs taking ______; it's too large.
A. up B. on C. over D. in
16. Can you make ______ the meaning of this passage?
A. out B. for C. up D. into
17. He’s such a hard man to ______ as he’s always flitting from one site to another.
A. pin in B. lock in C. narrow down D. nail down
18. Don't be put ______ by his manner. He always acts that way.
A. on B. away C. off D. down
19. His proposal met ______ total opposition from the committee.
A. about B. by C. for D. with
20. You ought to stand ______ your little brother when the others tease him.
A. over with B. by for C. about with D. up for
III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
21. It is possible to ______ out of the pension scheme if you do not wish to participate.
A. back B. charge C. opt D. break
22. She always gets what she wants because she knows how to ______ the rules.
A. circumvent B. desert C. slack D. elicit
23. Anthropologists have spent years studying the social system of this ______.
A. breed B. caste C. tribe D. sect
24. I tried to catch the mouse, but it was too ______.
A. intentional B. obsolete C. uncommon D. elusive
25. I have no appetite and I am lethargic. I've been feeling under ______ for ages.
A. pair B. stress C. par D. threat
26. Peter does everything himself because he doesn’t like to ______ control.
A. extinguish B. relinquish C. vanish D. elicit
27. I don't know how I can ______ up the courage to tell him the awful news.
A. pick B. pluck C. store D. set
28. I need to study more for the test. I don’t have a very good ______ of the material.
A. abstract B. grasp C. hint D. gist
29. The weekend is over, so tomorrow morning it's back to the ______.
A. grind B. labour C. drudgery D. toil
30. We could hear the monkey ______ long before we reached their cage.
A. chatting B. chattering C. prattling D. babbling
31. Bob is so short-tempered; he should try to ______ his anger.
A. monitor B. curb C. temper D. stunt
32. The police ______ the woods looking for the lost child.
A. scoured B. integrated C. traced D. encountered
33. Don't mention work to Ray, as it's a sore ______ with him at the moment.
A. finger B. point C. place D. nail
34. The couple ______ under the umbrella to keep dry.
A. enclosed B. muffled C. huddled D. augmented
35. A long, green snake ______ through the grass and disappeared.
A. strutted B. slunk C. slithered D. scampered
36. This schedule isn’t final. It’s only ______.
A. tentative B. sporadic C. contemporary D. subsequent
37. My new pullover______ to half its previous size when I washed it.
A. shrank B. reduced C. diminished D. dwindled
38. The new accounting system ______ all my work useless.
A. transformed B. rendered C. transposed D. converted
39. Martin just loves to ______ his teeth into a really challenging crossword.
A. grind B. get C. put D. sink
40. The doctor said that sweets should be eaten in ______.
A. compulsion B. restriction C. moderation D. qualification
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits each
The case of food storage in tin cans illustrates how an invention can be successful even when it (41)
______a new problem for the one it solves. In 1810, Peter Durand (42) ______ tremendous progress in
food preservation with his invention of the tin can. The cans were ideal for transporting food and for
(43) ______spoilage for extended periods. But consumers of canned food had to (44) ______ their own
ingenuity to open the solidly constructed cans, which sometimes outweighed the foodstuffs inside.
Durand’s solution had created a new problem, (45) ______ opening the cans. In the early days, the (46)
______ most favored was the brute force of a hammer and chisel. In 1858, Ezra Warner designed a
crude and somewhat (47) ______can opener. Finally (48) ______ 1930, the safe design that underlies
today’s common kitchen utensils had been invented. From the (49) ______ of their introduction,
however, the problem of opening the cans (50)______ not detract from their wide acceptance as a
solution to the problem of food preservation.
41. A. substitutes B. becomes C. causes D. is
42. A. provided B. invented C. made D. discovered
43. A. storing B. preserving C. keeping D. preventing
44. A. create B. know C. use D. make
45. A. easily B. especially C. hardly D. namely
46. A. consumer’s B. method C. can D. food
47. A. called B. dangerous C. safer D. sophisticated
48. A. in B. beyond C. prior D. by
49. A. latest B. way C. time D. first
50. A. did B. does C. could D. will
Two eyes help us to see in three dimensions; and two ears allow us to hear in stereo. If recent
research findings are (51) ______, two nostrils function in (52) ______ the same way. In the olfactory
system, each nostril conveys to the brain a slightly different olfactory (53) ______ upon smelling an
odor. What is perceived in combination is (54) ______ used by the brain to get a precise (55) ______ of
what the odor is. The slight difference (56) ______ the olfactory images seems to occur (57) ______ the
air flows at a different rate through each nostril, one of (58) ______ has a low flow-rate and the other a
high one. Odors that dissolve slowly have their maximum effect in the (59) ______ that has a slow
movement of air. Conversely, those that dissolve quickly have their (60) ______ effect when the air
stream is moving rapidly. Thus, air drawn into the nose will give different responses in each nostril. Not
yet well understood is how the brain processes the disparate olfactory images as a single recognizable
aroma. Future studies will be needed to completely explain this phenomenon.
51. A. incorrect B. reported C. accurate D. similar
52. A. so B. as C. much D. such
53. A. process B. image C. where D. once
54. A. which B. earlier C. strongly D. then
55. A. meaning B. measurement C. location D. sense
56. A. in B. about C. to D. when
57. A. before B. then C. however D. because
58. A. those B. which C. each D. such
59. A. nostril B. chemical C. flow D. other
60. A. personal B. strongest C. negative D. slowest
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best answer
to each question.
Recently, researchers conducted a survey to investigate what motivates young adults to exercise.
The study might shed light on why so few college students exercise and why many stop their exercise
workouts after they graduate. Researchers analyzed responses from 937 randomly selected college
students at a leading U.S. university. What the research team found was that 39% of the male students
and 26% of the female students exercised at least three days a week for 20 minutes at a time. These
exercise patterns were fairly similar to those in surveys at other universities. The survey also revealed
some critical factors which motivate college students to exercise.
Men who exercised regularly reported that their friends provided considerable support for them to
do so. Those who exercised only occasionally had moderate support from their friends, while those who
did not exercise at all had little or no support from friends. For women, however, the crucial motivating
factor seemed to come from family members rather than from friends. Women who exercised regularly
had a great deal of positive support to do so from their families. However, women who exercised only
occasionally received moderate levels of encouragement from their families, while those who did not
work out at all received little or no support from their families. Since college students often live far
from home, women students are likely to have a weaker support system than do their male counterparts.
A medical professor, upon seeing the results of the study, remarked that generally there is not so
much emphasis on body performance among girls and young women. “It’s a macho thing to be able to
run faster or lift weights,” he said. “However,” he continued, “for the younger generation, this gender
gap appears to be getting smaller.”
61. What is the main purpose of the study presented in this passage?
A. to investigate college students’ attitudes towards good health and exercise
B. to find out why young women don’t like to exercise
C. to learn what makes college students exercise
D. to find the best type of exercise workout for college students
62. What research method was used in this study?
A. College students reported on their friends’ exercise workouts.
B. College students reported on their families’ exercise patterns.
C. College professors answered questions about their students.
D. College students answered questions about themselves.
63. What similarity between men and women did the study find?
A. The more friends they have, the more they exercise.
B. The more support they have to exercise, the more they exercise.
C. The closer they live to their families, the more they exercise.
D. The more health-conscious they are, the more they exercise.
64. In comparison to the general college population, students at this university exercise ______.
A. less often than average
B. about the same amount as average
C. more often than average
D. for longer at a time than average
65. Why does the passage mention that some college students live far from home?
A. to emphasize that they do not see their families every day
B. to criticize their life styles
C. to show how independent they are
D. to explain why they depend on their friends so much
It has long been known that underweight, premature babies develop into children who perform
worse at school than children who had normal birth weight and were full-term. A recent study
examining the effects of birth weight on intelligence suggests that even among full-term babies the
heavier ones have an advantage. The study has been following 3,900 British men and women since their
birth in 1946. Birth weight was correlated with scores on tests of reading and arithmetic skills, non-
verbal reasoning, memory, speed, and concentration. These tests were conducted when the participants
were 8, 11, 15, 26, and 43 years old. Generally speaking, the heavier children performed better on the
tests. The relationship was strongest at age 8 and then weakened over time. By age 43, the relationship
was negligible. The results were not affected by birth order, gender, father’s social class, or mother’s
education and age.
These findings must be interpreted with caution. First, the results were based on averages. Second,
birth weight is only one of numerous factors influencing cognitive function. Parental interest in
education – such as volunteering at school or helping with homework - may offset the effect of birth
weight. Furthermore, poor environmental conditions, such as living in an overcrowded home, breathing
polluted air, or being caught in a bitter divorce can diminish the early advantages enjoyed by heavier
Although no one knows exactly what makes a newborn baby heavy, it is known that healthy, well-
nourished mothers tend to have heavier babies, while those who eat poorly, smoke, and are heavy
drinkers tend to produce smaller ones. There are probably several other variables that affect birth
weight, but if and how those are connected to intelligence is not known.
66. In this study, the researchers examined the relationship between _______.
A. maternal nutrition and birth weight
B. home environment and intelligence
C. age and intelligence
D. intelligence and birth weight
67. What did the researchers find out about the relationship they were studying?
A. It increased up to age 26, then decreased.
B. It remained steady until age 26, then decreased.
C. It decreased as the subjects grew older.
D. It remained steady throughout the study.
68. Which children have an advantage at school?
A. Those who were full-term, lighter weight babies.
B. Those who were premature but normal weight babies.
C. Those who were full-term, heavier babies.
D. Those who were premature babies who gained weight quickly.
69. According to the passage, what is one possible reason to question the conclusions of the study?
A. The study did not consider some environmental factors.
B. The study was done too long ago.
C. The study was done on premature babies, not full term ones.
D. The study tested different children at different ages.
70. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Premature babies are disadvantaged throughout their lives.
B. Parents’ educational level affects intelligence.
C. No one knows the exact relationship between test scores and intelligence.
D. Bigger babies may be more intelligent than smaller ones.
Diving deep into the ocean is difficult for humans, although whales do it easily. The deepest a
human has dived into the ocean without scuba gear is to 450 feet below the surface, which required him
to hold his breath for about two minutes. Humans are unable to go much deeper because at a certain
point the external pressure becomes so great it crushes the ribcage and lungs. Furthermore, lack of
oxygen also prevents humans from staying under water for long periods. It is amazing, then, that whales
can dive to depths of up to 10,000 feet and remain there for as long as two hours. Several adaptations
enable the whale to do this, among them the construction of its ribcage. Unlike humans, whales have
fewer “true” ribs, ribs joined directly to the breastbone, and more “floating” ribs, which are attached
only to the preceding rib by cartilage. This flexible design allows the whale’s ribcage to fold under
pressure instead of breaking, and for its lungs to collapse without rupturing capillaries. Also, during a
dive, the whale’s heart slows to as low as 3 to 5 beats a minute. Arteries constrict, reducing blood flow
to many of the whale’s less vital organs, thus conserving oxygen and maintaining blood
pressure in the brain and heart. Humans emerging too suddenly from dives can suffer from “the bends,”
when small bubbles of nitrogen gas form in body fluids and obstruct blood flow, leading to death.
Because whales collapse their lungs, air is pushed from the lungs into the windpipe, which is lined with
thick membranes, making it difficult for nitrogen bubbles to pass into the bloodstream or other tissues.
Together, these and other adaptations enable whales to dive to such depths.
71. What are “floating” ribs?
A. Ribs that are not attached to other ribs.
B. Ribs that are not attached to the breastbone.
C. Ribs that are made of cartilage.
D. Ribs that are not able to fold under pressure.
72. What is the main purpose of this passage?
A. to explain why whales can do something that humans cannot
B. to explain how humans and whales adapted
C. to explain what happens at great depths
D. to explain how the human respiratory system works
73. When a whale dives, what contributes to the conservation of oxygen?
A. Blood pressure increases.
B. Blood flow decreases.
C. The lungs collapse.
D. The ribcage folds.
74. Compared to whales, humans have ______.
A. weaker capillaries
B. thicker membranes in the windpipe
C. fewer floating ribs
D. slower heartbeats
75. How does the whale’s ribcage differ from that of a human?
A. The whale’s ribcage contains fewer vital organs.
B. The whale’s ribcage can bend without breaking.
C. Whales have fewer ribs than humans.
D. The whale’s ribs are not attached to the breastbone.
Scientists have not been able to determine the exact age of the Earth directly from its rocks.
Geologists have yet to find any of Earth’s original rocks that have not been recycled and destroyed
through the process of plate tectonics. However, scientists have been able to determine the probable age
of our solar system and to calculate an age for the Earth by looking elsewhere - to outer space. In doing
so, they had to assume that the Earth and the rest of the solid bodies in our solar system formed at the
same time and are the same age.
Asteroids in outer space have not been subjected to the crushing forces of plate tectonics.
Meteorites, which are fragments of asteroids that fall to Earth, contain clues about planetary formation.
Being primordial rocks still in their original state, they can be dated fairly accurately by measuring the
radioactive elements remaining in them since the formation of the solar system. One group of scientists
from Germany and another from France analyzed meteorites and reached the same conclusion: The final
phase of Earth’s formation, the separation of its metallic core from its silicate-based mantle, occurred
about 30 million years earlier than previously thought.
The ages of more than seventy meteorites have been measured using radiometric dating techniques.
The results show that meteorites, and therefore presumably Earth, formed about 4.5 billion years ago.
These findings also push back the origin of Earth’s moon because most scientists believe that the Moon
formed from material ejected when a Mars-sized planet collided with Earth. The fact that these
conclusions about the age of the Earth were reached by two independent groups of scientists increases
the weight of the findings.
76. What strengthens the claim made in this passage about Earth’s age?
A. Earth and meteorites are the same age.
B. Two separate research studies had the same results.
C. Geologists have found Earth’s original rocks.
D. The moon is older than previously thought.
77. What conclusion did the French and German scientists reach?
A. Meteorites have radioactive elements.
B. Plate tectonics does not occur on asteroids.
C. The Earth is older than was believed in the past.
D. The Moon is older than the Earth.
78. According to the passage, what is involved in “radiometric dating techniques”?
A. using radioactivity to restore an object to its original state
B. measuring the radioactive elements in an object
C. calculating how many times Earth’s rocks were recycled
D. subjecting an object to crushing forces
79. How did scientists date the Earth?
A. directly, by analyzing plate tectonics
B. directly, by measuring Earth’s metallic core
C. indirectly, by dating the Earth’s Moon
D. indirectly, by dating meteorites
80. What indicated the last stage in the Earth’s formation?
A. a reduction in the crushing force of plate tectonics
B. the separation of Earth’s core from its mantle
C. a shower of seventy meteorites falling to Earth
D. the collision of a Mars-sized planet with Earth
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE suitable
Fallingwater is recognized as one of the most unique and innovative (1) ______ of American
architecture of the 20th century. Designed in 1935 by architect Frank Lloyd Wright, this beautiful house
in western Pennsylvania is actually built over a waterfall. Wright placed the house above the waterfall
by anchoring it to the (2) ______ next to the falls with concrete “trays,” (3) ______ mimic the natural
shape of rock ledges. As a(n) (4) ______, the house appears to be suspended above the waterfall, which
cascades underneath it. Wright took much care in (5) ______ Fallingwater as harmonious with nature as
possible by linking the house to its natural surroundings. He placed large windows on opposite sides of
the main rooms so that the breeze and (6) ______ of the water could flow through the house (7) ______
hindrance. Wright also proposed covering the building in gold leaf in (8) ______ to imitate the color of
dying plants, and thereby connect the house to the (9) ______ of seasons and the passage of time.
Furthermore, he added a (10)______ of outdoor terraces where people could enjoy the cool air of the
Today, Fallingwater is open to the public with its original setting, furnishings, and artwork intact.
Global warming may be threatening one of the world’s most important crops: rice. Increased
nighttime temperatures are associated with significant declines in crop (11) ______, according to a
study conducted by researchers at the International Rice Institute. The researchers analyzed twelve years
of rice production along with twenty-five years of temperature data. This study, a direct measurement of
yields produced under normal field conditions, using (12) ______ that good farmers normally employ,
has confirmed previous simulations and suggests that (13) ______ increases due to global warming will
make it increasingly difficult to feed the Earth’s growing population. Average (14) ______
temperatures, which increased 0.35 degrees Celsius over the (15) ______ of the study, have little effect
on rice production.
However, a strong correlation exists between warmer nighttime temperatures, which have risen an
average of 1.1 degrees, (16) ______ decreasing rice yields. Although the underlying (17) ______ of this
relationship is unknown, researchers speculate that plants work harder to maintain themselves in (18)
______ to the warmer nights and consequently divert energy from growth. Thus, an average (19)
______ of just one degree Celsius can (20) ______ in a ten percent reduction in yields. Similar findings
have been reported for corn and soybean yields in the United States.
II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)
PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. They were in search of ______ archaeological remains. (DATE)
2. He always gets ______ aggressive when he’s drunk. (RESTRAIN)
3. The drop in share prices in March was a ______ of the financial crash that followed in June. (RUN)
4. She sang the first three verses with a piano and the last verse ______. (COMPANY)
5. I really didn't mean to offend her - I just said it ______. (THINK)
6. They were accused of ______ in their treatment of the hostages. (HUMAN)
7. Alcohol is a ______ factor in 10% of all road accidents. (CONTRIBUTE)
8. He had to face up to his own ______ as a father. (ADEQUATE)
9. It was ______ a step in the right direction. (QUESTION)
10. Hospital beds were scarce and medicines were practically ______. (EXIST)
PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.
COMPLICATE STAND DINE WELCOME DEPEND
OCCUR DEFEND TERROR DELICATE EXPOSE
One of the most lethal poisons on Earth, ten thousand times more deadly than cyanide, is
tetrodotoxin, more concisely known as TTX. Its potency is well known in East Asia, where it regularly
kills (11)______who have braved the capricious (12) ______ known as puffer fish. This toxin has a (13)
______ method of operation: twenty-five minutes after (14) ______, it begins to paralyse its victims,
leaving the victim fully aware of what is happening. Death usually results, within hours, from
suffocation or heart failure. There is no known antidote. If lucky patients can (15) ______ the symptoms
for twenty-four hours, they usually recover without further (16)______. It is no ordinary poison. What is
strange about its (17) ______ is that it is found in such a wide range of creatures, from algae to
angelfish spanning entire kingdoms of life. It is rather unlikely that such an unusual toxin evolved (18)
______ in so many unrelated animals. Marine biologists have discovered that the poison is produced by
bacteria living in the gut of its host. The best explanation is that a symbiotic relationship exists between
host and the not (19) ______ guest, where microbes exchange poison for nutrients, providing a valuable
(20) ______ weapon for its host.
III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify
and correct them.
BEWARE OF VITAMINS!
Vitamins are good for our health, aren't they? Perhaps not. New research suggests that rather
than ward off disease, high doses of certain vitamins may make more harm than good and
could even put you in an early grave. Some recent studies suggest that far from improving
health, these vitamins, when taken at very high doses, may actually increase the risks of
cancer and a range of debilitating diseases, a discovery that has sent the medicinal world into
a spin. Scientists are unsure as to when vitamins, so essential to health, can be toxic in high
doses. The most likely explanation is that the body is only equipped to deal with the levels
found naturally in the environment. If the intake is too far for the normal range, then the
body's internal chemistry must be shunted out of alignment. What this means is that the
commercially sold vitamins and those provided by nature is not always compatible. The
commercial forms may interfere with the body's internal chemistry by “crowding out” the
most natural and beneficial forms of the nutrients. The vitamins obtained in food are also
allied with a host of other substances which may moderate or augment its activity in the
body. The latest advice is to eat a balance diet to ensure you get all the nutrients you need,
and if you must take supplements make sure you take the lowest recommended dose and
follow the instructions on the bottle.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the
1. People know more about my novels than the plays I write. (BETTER)
2. The staff hated his new policies intensely and so went on strike. (HATRED)
→So intense ______________________________________________.
3. Your attitude to life would be greatly improved by regular exercise.(WONDERS)
→Regular exercise would ___________________________________.
4. There is someone in the office twenty-four hours a day. (STAFFED)
→The office ______________________________________________.
5. Do you think her grandmother was offended by what I said? (EXCEPTION)
→Do you think ____________________________________________?
6. His behavior at the conference gave him the bad reputation he now has.(CONDUCTED)
→The way _________________________________________________.
7. Unless we can obtain more information, we can't process your claim. (FORTHCOMING)
→Unless further ____________________________________________.
8. Our teacher thinks it would be better to get on as quickly as possible. (MUCH)
→Our teacher would prefer us _________________________________.
9. I had to wait for the manager for almost an hour before he would see me. (BEST)
→The manager kept _________________________________________.
10. They remain close friends despite having had many arguments. (FALL)
→Frequently as _____________________________________________.
END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK
ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC OLYMPIC 10 (2019)
Phần trắc nghiệm (0.5 pt each
1. B.Although 21. C. opt 41. A. substitutes
2. A.Assuming 22. A. circumvent 42. C. made
3. D.haven't been waiting 23. C. tribe 43. D. preventing
4. A.cleaned 24. D. elusive 44. C. use
5. D.can't 25. C. par 45. D. namely
6. A.could have called 26. B. relinquish 46. B. method
7. D.should 27. B. pluck 47. B. dangerous
8. C.If only you could 28. C. hint 48. D. by
9. B.Provided that 29. A. grind 49. C. time
10. B.whom 30. B. chattering 50. A. did
11. A.of 31. B. curb 51. C. accurate
12. C.out 32. A. scoured 52. C. much
13. D.make up for 33. B. point 53. B. image
14. B.of 34. C. huddled 54. D. then
15. D. in 35. C. slithered 55. D. sense
16. A. out 36. A. tentative 56. A. in
17. D. nail down 37. A. shrank 57. D. because
18. C. off 38. B. rendered 58. B. which
19. D. with 39. B. get 59. A. nostril
20. D. up for 40. C. moderation 60. B. strongest
61. C to learn what makes college students exercise
62. D. College students answered questions about themselves.
63. B. The more support they have to exercise, the more they exercise.
64. B. about the same amount as average
65. A. to emphasize that they do not see their families every day
66. D. intelligence and birth weight
67. C. It decreased as the subjects grew older.
68. C. Those who were full-term, heavier babies.
69. A. The study did not consider some environmental factors.
70. D. Bigger babies may be more intelligent than smaller ones.
71. B. Ribs that are not attached to the breastbone.
72. A. to explain why whales can do something that humans cannot
73. B. Blood flow decreases.
74. C. fewer floating ribs.
75. B. The whale's ribcage can bend without breaking.
76. B. Two separate research studies had the same results.
77. C. The Earth is older than was believed in the past.
78. B. measuring the radioactive elements in an object
79. D. indirectly, by dating meteorites
80. B. the separation of Earth's core from its mantle
Phần tự luận:
OPEN CLOZE (1 pt each)
1. works 8. order 15. course
2. rock 9. change 16. and
3. which 10. number / lot 17. cause
4. result / consequence 11. yields 18. response
5. keeping / making 12. practices / methods 19. increase / rise
6. sound 13. temperature 20. result
7. without 14. daytime
WORD FORMATION (1 pt each)
1. undated 8. inadequacy/ inadequacies 15. withstand
2. unrestrained 9. unquestionably 16. complications
3. forerunner 10. non-existent 17. occurrence
4. unaccompanied 11. diners 18. independently
5. unthinkingly 12. delicacy 19. unwelcome
6. inhumanity 13. terrifying 20. defensive
7. contributory 14. exposure
ERROR IDENTIFICATION (1 pt each)
1. line 2: make → cause/do 6. line 9: must → can / may / might
2. line 4: at → in 7. line 10: is → are
3. line 5: medicinal → medical 8. line 12: in → from
4. line 6: when → why 9. line 13: its → their
5. line 8: for → above 10. line 14: balance → balanced
SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (2 pts each)
1. I'm better known as a novelist than as a playwright.
I'm better known for my novels than for the plays I write.
2. So intense was the hatred for his new policies (that) the staff went on strike.
So intense was the staff's hatred for his new policies (that) they went on strike.
3. Regular exercise would do wonders for your attitude to life.
4. The office is staffed twenty-four hours a day.
5. Do you think her grandmother took exception to what I said?
6. The way he conducted himself at the conference gave him the bad reputation he now has.
7. Unless further information is forthcoming, we can't process your claim.
8. Our teacher would prefer US to make as much progress as we can.
9. The manager kept me waiting for the best part of an hour before he would see me.
10. Frequently as they fall out (with each other), they remain dose friends.