Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh Bình Dương 2024-2025

Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh Bình Dương năm 2024 - 1/3

Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh Bình Dương 2024-2025 có đáp án tham khảo đã được cập nhật tại website. Mời các em học sinh tham khảo và tải xuống file đề thi để luyện tập.

Thí sinh dự thi tuyển vào các trường THPT công lập, kể cả Trường THPT chuyên Hùng Vương và Trường THPT Trịnh Hoài Đức, thi viết 03 môn (không chuyên): Toán, Ngữ văn, và Tiếng Anh. Môn Toán và môn Ngữ văn đều có thời gian làm bài 120 phút, môn Tiếng Anh có thời gian làm bài 60 phút.

Cách tính điểm xét tuyển

Điểm bài thi được tính là tổng điểm thành phần của từng câu hỏi trong đề thi, theo thang điểm 10 và làm tròn đến 0,25, riêng môn Tiếng Anh điểm lẻ đến 0,1. Điểm các môn Toán, Ngữ văn và Tiếng Anh được tính theo hệ số 1 khi tính tổng điểm xét tuyển.

Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh Bình Dương năm 2024 - 1/3

Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh Bình Dương năm 2024 - 1/3

Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh Bình Dương năm 2024 - 2/3

Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh Bình Dương năm 2024 - 2/3

Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh Bình Dương năm 2024 - 3/3

Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh Bình Dương năm 2024 - 3/3

Đáp án tham khảo

11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. C

21. A 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. B

31. A 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D

Đề thi chính thức

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 

BÌNH DƯƠNG

(Bài thi có 40 câu hỏi và 01 bài viết)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT

NĂM HỌC: 2024-2025 – MÔN TIẾNG ANH 

Ngày thi: 31/05/2024

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..........................................................................

Số báo danh: ............................................................................... 


- Mở đầu và kết thúc phần thi nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.

- Phần thi nghe kéo dài 8 phút; gồm 10 câu hỏi; được nghe 02 lần.

- Sau khi nghe xong, thí sinh còn 60 phút để làm các phần còn lại.

I. Listening (2.0 points)

Listen to a talk about stress management. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each question.

1. People today are too busy to care for _______.

A. their children B. their parents  C. themselves  D. each other

2. According to their survey, _______ has a huge impact on people’s health.

A. a lack of time B. a lack of money   C. heart disease  D. cancer

3. Health problems such as heart disease and high blood pressure are _______.

A. decreasing  B. increasing  C. disappearing   D. controlled

4. People eat, drink and smoke more when they are _______.

A. annoyed  B. delighted   C. relaxed  D. stressed

5. It’s necessary to drink at least _______ glasses of water a day.

A. six   B. eight C. nine  D. ten

6. If you use a computer at work, take a five-minute break every _______ to exercise.

A. half an hour   B. hour  C. two hours   D. three hours

7. To exercise, you can move your _______ gently from side to side, shrug your shoulders and shake out your arms and legs.

A. hip   B. hand  C. heart D. head

8. To reduce stress and to lower blood pressure, you can sit comfortably with your back straight, shut your eyes and concentrate on your _______ for 10 minutes.

A. eating   B. teaching C. breathing   D. meeting

9. You should try walking to work or go for a walk at _______.

A. breakfast   B. lunchtime   C. dinner   D. night

10. You can take a rest on the sofa and enjoy doing _______.

A. exercise B. yoga  C. nothing  D. homework

II. Reading (2.0 points)

Part 1: Read the passage and complete each blank with a correct word (A, B, C or D).

Every year, between 365 million and one billion birds (11) _______ thought to be killed in building collisions in the US. More than half of those crashes are actually with low-rise buildings, such as people’s homes. Birds may collide with them in small numbers per building, but it adds up, as houses are so widespread. However, big lit-up buildings such as skyscrapers may kill hundreds of birds at once. (12) _______ October 2023, nearly 1000 birds (13) _______ in a single night during their autumn migration from hitting a skyscraper in Chicago. 

Many birds migrate by night and use the (14) _______ to find their way. During their night migration, they are often seen gathering around or crashing into lit-up windows and structures. One explanation is that they may usually (15) _______ towards light sources, but unfortunately, the artificial light confuses and traps them.

(Adapted from www.bbc.com)

11.   A. are   B. were  C. will be  D. have been

12.   A. At B. In C. On D. For

13.   A. died  B. dead  C. deadly   D. death

14.   A. satellites  B. earth C. sun   D. stars

15.   A. swim  B. drive C. fly   D. ride

Part 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the questions.

Positive thinking has many advantages. Positive people are usually happy and don’t worry about bad events in life, so they stay healthy. Also, positive people are likely to exercise and eat healthy foods. Because of this, they don’t usually get sick and don’t have many health problems.

Positive people do well in jobs as they are creative and solve problems themselves without asking other people for help. They also like to learn new things, so they study and take classes. Their knowledge and skills make them better workers.

Positive thinking also helps in sports. Top athletes are positive thinkers and never give up. They like to practice their sports and always want to get better. Also, before they do an action, they “see” themselves do it correctly, believing they are going to win.

There are many different ways to become more positive. First, think about good events in your life. At the end of a day, ask, “What good things happened to me today?” Think about these things for a few minutes. Second, find activities to do. Laugh at a funny movie or read a good book. Finally, always try new things. For example, you can talk to people you don’t know or shop in a different store. Do different things every day.

Life can be difficult sometimes. Don’t give up and be negative. Take action. Think about the future by making a plan. You can learn to be positive.

(Adapted from Q: Skills for Success Level 1)

16. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. The benefits of positive thinking   B. The drawbacks of positive thinking

C. The conflicts of positive thinkers  D. The importance of positive thinkers

17. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. classes  B. skills   C. new things  D. positive people

18. According to paragraph 2, when positive people have problems, they usually _______.

A. get help from others B. ask better workers   C. take classes   D. look for solutions

19. The phrase “give up” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. love playing   B. stop trying C. keep working   D. start training

20. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about positive thinkers?

A. They are creative.   B. They are confident.  C. They are depressed.  D. They are independent.

III. Vocabulary and Grammar (4.0 points)

Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions.

21. If it _______ tomorrow, we’ll go to the beach.

A. doesn’t rain   B. didn’t rain C. won’t rain  D. hadn’t rain

22. He has always regretted not _______ harder at school.

A. studied  B. study C. studying D. to study

23. The train to London took _______ than an hour.

A. many  B. much  C. more  D. most

24. She’s going to be a professional dancer when she _______ up.

A. grew  B. grows C. will grow   D. had grown

25. James and Stephen _______ stay home on Sundays because they prefer outdoor activities.

A. rarely   B. frequently  C. usually  D. always

26. I want to travel because I _______ seeing new places and meeting people.

A. hate  B. need  C. want  D. love

27. One of the most unique activities in Hoi An Ancient Town is releasing the lotus flower _______ on the Hoai River.

A. sandals  B. lanterns C. burdens  D. spacesuits

28. Liz and Max worked with _______ to create their dream home.

A. a pharmacist   B. a detective C. an architect   D. an astronaut

29. The valuable cookbook contains many simple but highly _______ meals.

A. undercooked B. nutritious  C. tasteless   D. overcooked

30. When the rain stopped, they _______ a walk in the cool, after-rain air.

A. passed down to B. set off for C. faced up to D. ran out of

31. Bonn is one of German’s oldest cities and it is famous for the birthplace of Beethoven.

Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the sentence.

A. German’s B. cities   C. for   D. birthplace

32. The chef garnished the steak with a sprinkling of freshly chopped parsley.

The word “garnished” is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.

A. embroidered B. publicised  C. imitated D. decorated

33. He was relieved to know that his mother’s illness was not a serious one.

The word “relieved” is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.

A. worried  B. embarrassed C. qualified   D. pleased

34. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.

A. operate  B. activate C. imitate  D. exhibit

35. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

A. treat B. please   C. dream D. spread

Questions 36-40: Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the given sentence.

36. It’s important for children to go to bed early.

A. Children needn’t go to bed early.

B. Children might go to bed late.

C. Children should not stay up late.

D. Children ought to stay up late.

37. Although it rained heavily, we enjoyed the camping trip.

A. It rained heavily but we enjoyed the camping trip.

B. It rained heavily so we enjoyed the camping trip.

C. We enjoyed the camping trip because it rained heavily.

D. We enjoyed the camping trip when it rained heavily.

38. They have been living here since last year.

A. They have never been here before.

B. They moved here last year.

C. They will leave here next year. 

D. They are going to live here.

39. She said to me, “I go to the gym next to your house.”

A. She wanted me to go to the gym next to our house.

B. She suggested going to the gym next to your house.

C. She said that she went to the gym next to my house.

D. She asked me if I went to the gym next to her house.

40. My grandfather is 88 years old, and he goes swimming every day.

A. My grandfather goes swimming every day who is 88 years old.

B. My grandfather, who goes swimming every day is 88 years old.

C. My grandfather is 88 years old who goes swimming every day.

D. My grandfather, who is 88 years old, goes swimming every day.

IV. Writing (2.0 points)

In about 120 words, write a paragraph about three tips to have healthy eating habits.

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