Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 6 cấp huyện Triệu Sơn 2023-2024 có đáp án

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 

TRIỆU SƠN

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 04 trang)

KIỂM ĐỊNH CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN

NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn: TIẾNG ANH 6

Ngày 22 tháng 3 năm 2024

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Chú ý: Đề gồm có 04 trang. Thí sinh không làm bài vào tờ đề.

SECTION A: LISTENING (15.0 points)

Phần nghe có 03 bài, mỗi bài được nghe 02 lần (giám thị chỉ mở 01 lần, tái sử dụng phát đều 02 lần). Trước phần nghe có 03 phút để thí sinh đọc đề bài.

Part I. Listen to someone talking about a trip to Vietnam. Decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5.0 points)

Statements True False

1. Mr. Johnson does not really like his trip to Vietnam.

2. He spent more than a week in each city.

3. He travelled around each city by motorbike.

4. He found Vietnamese food delicious.

5. He enjoyed wonderful weather during his trip.

Part II. Listen and fill in the missing information. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below. There is an example at the beginning (0). (5.0 points)

(0. What day? after school)

6. Teacher’s name: Mrs. (6) __________.

7. Where is it? Opposite the school (7) __________.

8. Number of students this year: (8) __________.

9. Next week - making: (9) __________.

10. How much this year? £(10) __________.

Part III. Listen to Joe asking about a French language course. For questions 11-15, circle A, B, or C. You will hear the conversation twice. (5.0 points)

11. The best class for Joe is __________.

A. French Conversation B. Business French C. French for Tourists

12. Joe’s class begins at __________.

A. 6:30 B. 7:15 C. 8:30

13. How many other students will be in Joe’s class?

A. 9 B. 14 C. 15

14. What should Joe take to his first class?

A. A dictionary B. A course book C. A notebook

15. Joe will pay __________.

A. £25 B. £145 C. £170

SECTION B: PRONUNCIATION (5.0 points)

Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (3.0 points)

16. A. action B. attack C. jacket D. battle

17. A. worked B. raised C. stopped D. vanished

18. A. geography B. together C. negative D. technology

Question II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (2.0 points)

19. A. arcade B. cartoon C. invite D. author

20. A. literature B. biology C. activity D. geography

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35.0 points)

Question I. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (10.0 points)

21. This is __________ bag; __________ is over there.

A. her - our B. hers - ours C. her - ours D. hers - our

22. When was the film Alice’s in Wonderland __________?

A. at B. on C. in D. about

23. Mr. Thanh has __________ appointment at four o’clock __________ this afternoon.

A. an - a B. an - an C. an - 0 D. a - 0

24. Hoa dances more __________ than her classmates.

A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautify D. beautifully

25. The three Rs __________ reduce, reuse, and recycle.

A. mean by B. stand for C. turn to D. put up

26. There will be a helicopter on the roof __________ I can fly to school.

A. so that B. although C. because D. in order to

27. I watched a horror movie __________ Insidious 3 last night.

A. to call B. calling C. call D. called

28. I’ve tried those tablets, and they are not __________ in helping me stop coughing.

A. effective B. successful C. profitable D. helpful

29. I don’t mind __________ the phone as long as you pay for your calls.

A. you used B. you to use C. your to using D. your using

30. Students have two __________ each day.

A. 10-minute break B. 10-minutes break C. 10-minute breaks D. 10-minutes breaks

Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the following sentences. (10.0 points)

31. My train (leave) __________ Plymouth at 11, so I need to be at the station by 10:15.

32. One hundred dollars (be) __________ a big amount of money for her.

33-34. Yesterday, I (spend) __________ two hours (do) __________ the homework.

35. I’m sorry I can’t hear what you are saying because everybody (talk) __________ so loudly.

36. I’m hungry because I (not have) __________ breakfast or lunch.

37. Mrs. Kelly is my English teacher. She (teach) __________ in this school four years ago.

38. (Not/play) __________ soccer in the street! It’s very dangerous.

39. The water is too dangerous. We (go) __________ kayaking here.

40. Peter wants me (not/come) __________ to the meeting late.

Question III. Write the correct forms of the words in brackets. (10.0 points)

41. May I have __________ chicken, please? (FRY)

42. Do your classes start __________ or later? (EARLY)

43. Which __________ do you want to sign up for? (ACT)

44. Japan is the most __________ advanced country. (TECHNOLOGY)

45. Many people visit Can Tho to see its __________ market. (FLOAT)

46. Peter does not join in class activities. He seems __________ with his classmates. (POPULAR)

47. These children are not old enough to live __________. (DEPEND)

48. We can __________ empty glass jars to store food, like jam and nuts. (USE)

49. We go __________ every Sunday. (PICNIC)

50. This jacket is an __________ size. It’s very big. (LARGE)

Question IV. Each of the following sentences has one mistake. Find it and correct it. (5.0 points)

51. I like (A) studying history (B) and I find (C) this subject very (D) interesed.

52. We should (A) reuse and (B) recycling bottles and (C) cans to (D) reduce rubbish.

53. Before (A) donate a book, make (B) sure that it (C) is in good (D) condition.

54. Paris (A) is one of (B) the most (C) romantic (D) city in the world.

55. (A) Smoking cigarettes (B) aren’t (C) allowed (D) in the hospital.

SECTION D: READING (25.0 points)

Question 1. Read the text and fill one suitable word in each numbered blank. (10.0 points)

“Yellow flowers on the green grass” is a 2015 Vietnamese drama, which was directed by Victor Vu. It is adapted from the novel of the same name (56) __________ Nguyen Nhat Anh. The film stars Thinh Vinh and Trong Khang. (57) __________ there aren’t any famous actors, the film attracted a large audience.

The film is about the (58) __________ of the brothers Thieu (Thinh Vinh) and Tuong (Trong Khang) in a poor rural village in Central Vietnam in the 1980s. They share and do everything (59) __________. However, when their friend next door Man (Thanh My), comes to stay with them and a big flood hits their village, (60) __________ is a big misunderstanding that leads to Tuong’s back injury. The film has (61) __________ open ending with the scene of Thieu and Tuong studying in (62) __________ house.

The film received (63) __________ positive reviews from critics for its touching story, beautiful and familiar scenery of the country in Vietnam, and the especially impressive actings of three main actors.

The film touches audiences’ hearts because it is about a story of childhood but it is not childish nor for (64) __________ children; it’s for adults who used to be children. It makes them cry and laugh together when they remember their own childhood, hometown and family. The film is well worth (65) __________.

Posted by Trang at 3:30 p.m.

Question II. Choose the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete the following passage. (10.0 points)

Rivers are (66) __________ of the world’s most important natural resources. Many cities are on large rivers, and (67) __________ every country has at least one river that (68) __________ an important part in the lives of its people.

Besides transportation, rivers (69) __________ food, water for crops, water to drink, and opportunities for recreation for people who live along their (70) __________. And in order to get water for crops, engineers sometimes build a dam across a river and let the water become a lake (71) __________ the dam. Then people can use their water not only to (72) __________ fields but also to make electricity for homes and industries.

(73) __________, the water often becomes polluted when cities on river banks grow (74) __________ size and the number of industries increases. We are learning that it is necessary to (75) __________ rivers clean if we want to enjoy the benefits of natural resources.

66. A. one B. ones C. among D. those

67. A. most B. mostly C. almost D. about

68. A. takes B. makes C. occupies D. plays

69. A. supply B. provide C. distribute D. bring

70. A. banks B. shores C. sides D. beaches

71. A. behind B. on C. below D. under

72. A. take B. irrigate C. drain D. give

73. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. Thus D. However

74. A. of B. about C. in D. for

75. A. keep B. get C. hold D. maintain

Question III. Read the text. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D (5.0 points)

When I injured my back I had to take a break from my running career. I decided to introduce more women to the sport, to show them how much fun it can be and to give them the confidence to get out and run.

I decided to start a running club for women in my area because I was annoyed by the attitude of many race organisers. They complain about the lack of women in the sport but also use this as an excuse for not providing separate changing facilities.

I put up posters and 40 women, young and old, fit and unfit, joined. All of them were attracted by the idea of losing weight but I don’t think they had really thought about running before. When or if they did, they had a picture of painful training. They didn’t think of chatting and smiling while running in beautiful places, like by a river.

At first they ran for only a minute - now they can run for thirty minutes. They’ve also learned from other runners about diet and keeping fit in general.

I wanted to do something for women’s running and I’ve had so much pleasure watching their progress - almost as much as they’ve had themselves.

76. What is the writer’s main aim in writing the text?

A. to describe her own running career B. to complain about race organisers

C. to describe good running methods D. to talk about women runners

77. What would a reader find out from the text?

A. the best kinds of places for running B. how runners can avoid injuring themselves

C. the progress made by the women in the club D. the teaching skills of the writer

78. What is the writer’s opinion of the runners she trained?

A. They were too serious. B. They needed encouraging.

C. They couldn’t develop their skills. D. They were difficult to train.

79. The women joined the running club to __________

A. have a good time. B. meet other people.

C. help them lose weight. D. become top runners.

80. Which of the following would be the best title for the club poster?

A. Discover the pleasures of running B. Riverside Running Club for Women

C. Athletics competitions: how to win D. Keep Fit by Training Hard

SECTION E: WRITING (20.0 points)

Question I. Rewrite the sentences, so that their meaning stays the same, using the beginning given for each. (5.0 points)

81. There isn’t a smart TV in my house.

⇒ My house ______________________________________________________________________________

82. It takes me about two hours each day to do my homework.

⇒ I spend _________________________________________________________________________________

83. If she doesn’t try her best, she may fail in the final exam.

⇒ Unless _________________________________________________________________________________

84. Who writes the novel?

⇒ Who is the ______________________________________________________________________________

85. We buy a house that has two floors.

⇒ We buy _________________________________________________________________________________

Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the word given. (5.0 points)

86. I started learning English two years ago. (FOR)

⇒ I ______________________________________________________________________________________ 

87. We shouldn’t turn on the lights when not using them. (DON’T)

⇒ _______________________________________________________________________________________

88. Jenny knows a lot about foods around the world. (EXPERT)

⇒ Jenny is ________________________________________________________________________________ 

89. Life in space is not the same as life on Earth. (DIFFERENT)

⇒ Life in space _____________________________________________________________________________

90. Where might people live in the future? (PROBABLY)

⇒ Where _________________________________________________________________________________ 

Question III. Write a short paragraph (80-100 words) about one of your books you like. (10.0 points)

(Do not show your name, your school’s name or your village’s name in the paragraph.)

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