Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 có đáp án

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 1

Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh có tài liệu ôn tập cho Kỳ thi HSG cấp quận/huyện/TP năm học 2024-2025, Tài liệu diệu kỳ đã biên tập Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 kèm theo đầy đủ đáp án và file pdf tải xuống. Đề thi chính thức có 05 trang, thi vào ngày 11/5/2024.

Cấu trúc đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 THCS cấp TP năm học 2023-2024 của Phòng Giáo Dục và Đào Tạo thành phố Thanh Hóa được chia thành 5 phần với thời gian làm bài 120 phút, bao gồm:

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 points)

- 3 parts, each played twice.

+ Part I: Fill in the blanks from a conversation (5 questions).

+ Part II: True/False questions from a dialogue (5 questions).

+ Part III: Multiple choice questions from a conversation (5 questions).

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 points)

- Part I: Identify the word with a different pronunciation (3 questions).

- Part II: Choose the word with a different stress pattern (2 questions).

SECTION C: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (25 points)

- Part I: Multiple choice (10 questions).

- Part II: Verb form correction (5 questions).

- Part III: Word form correction (5 questions). - Part IV: Error identification (5 questions).

SECTION D: READING (25 points)

- Part I: Fill in the blanks in a passage (10 blanks).

- Part II: Complete the sentences from a reading passage (10 questions).

- Part III: Comprehension questions based on a passage (5 questions).

SECTION E: WRITING (10 points)

- Part I: Sentence rewriting (5 questions).

- Part II: Rewrite sentences using given words (5 questions).

Total: 100 points

Các em học sinh cần chú ý đến các dạng bài tập và chủ đề ngữ pháp xuất hiện trong đề thi giao lưu HSG tại TP Thanh Hóa năm 2024 sau: Word order of adjectives, Prepositions, Phrasal verbs, Idiomatic expressions, Quantifiers, Responses in conversations, Verb forms, Word formation, Sentence transformation…

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 1

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 1

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 2

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 2

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 3

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 3

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 4

Đề thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 thành phố Thanh Hóa 2023-2024 - 4

Link tải đề thi giao lưu Tiếng Anh 7 Thanh Hóa 2024-2025

Tải xuống bộ đề thi file pdf (đáp án + file nghe + transcripts) tại đường link phía dưới và thực hành ngay.

Mong rằng tài liệu này sẽ là nguồn hỗ trợ hữu ích giúp các bạn chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi giao lưu học sinh giỏi năm nay!

Trích dẫn nội dung đề thi

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 

THÀNH PHỐ THANH HÓA

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 05 trang)

KỲ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS (LỚP 6, 7)

CẤP THÀNH PHỐ NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn giao lưu: Tiếng Anh 7

Ngày giao lưu: 11/5/2024

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



SECTION A. LISTENING (15 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.

- Mỗi đoạn kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.

- Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part I: You will hear a telephone conversation in which Sam is booking a taxi. Complete the form by using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. (5 pts)

Booking a taxi

- Pick up date of time: at 3:30 a.m. (1) __________

- Pick-up point, Town: (2) __________, WILLOWSIDE BANK.

 (3) __________

- Postcode: (4) __________

- Mobile phone: 07789 (5) __________

Part II: You will hear a conversation between Vincent and his sister, Catherine, about a party. Decide if each sentence is true (T) or false (F). (5 pts)

6. Catherine and Vincent feel the same way about meeting new people.

7. The woman talking to Catherine had long straight brown hair.

8. Vincent thinks the writer should have given him a chance to speak.

9. The man from the flooded village was rescued by the police.

10. Vincent enjoyed hearing about the graduation ceremony.

Part III: You are going to hear a travel agent talking with a client who is planning her summer holiday. For each of the questions choose the best answer A, B, or C. (5pts)

11. She wants to go on holiday in __________. 

A. two weeks’ time  B. June C. July

12. The woman doesn’t want to go on safari because __________.

A. the weather would be too hot

B. it would be too expensive

C. her husband wouldn’t enjoy it

13. When on holiday, all of the woman’s family enjoy __________.

A. going to restaurants B. staying in the city  C. going to museums

14. Who went to Spain last year?

A. the woman  B. the woman’s husband  C. the woman’s daughter

15. The travel agent says that __________.

A. Italy is cheap B. the food in Italy is good  C. the Italian countryside is beautiful

SECTION B. PHONETICS (5 pts)

Part I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

16. A. pressure B. especial C. prepare  D. helpful

17. A. honor  B. exhibition C. horrible D. honesty

18. A. watched  B. reduced  C. coughed  D. raised

Part II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

19. A. difference B. supporting C. difficult  D. beautiful

20. A. realize  B. comfortable  C. possible D. improve

SECTION C. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (25 pts)

Part I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (10 pts)

21. Jenny bought a __________ when she was in Paris.

A. silk pretty red dress  B. red pretty silk dress

C. dress pretty silk red  D. pretty red silk dress

22. No doubt, sleeplessness can have a noticeable effect __________ our performance at work.

A. to B. with C. on D. for

23. Richard is expected to take __________ the family business when his father dies.

A. on B. off  C. in D. over

24. I am sorry, but we can’t use the elevator at the moment because it is __________.

A. out of work  B. out of sight C. out of order D. out of duty

25. We found that __________ students in this class are from the same city.

A. most of  B. most all C. almost the D. most of the

26. My new job __________ working with old age pensioners.

A. requests B. consists C. involves D. contains

27. - Jack: “Mary, remember to send my regards to your grandfather.”

- Mary: “__________.”

A. You’re welcome.  B. Thanks, I will.  C. That’s a good idea.  D. It’s my pleasure.

28. When you __________ your destination, your tour guide will meet you at the airport.

A. arrive B. get  C. reach  D. achieve

29. He is a specialist __________ modern Vietnamese literature.

A. of B. at C. for  D. in

30. David has not seen Linda for fifteen years and has __________ of her address.

A. no idea  B. nothing  C. no thought D. no mind

Part II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (5 pts)

31. His brother, together with his grandparents, (just arrive) __________ at the station.

32. My son likes eating chocolate (produce) __________ in France.

33. If it (rain) __________ heavily, we will stay at home.

34. Lan bought a new English book yesterday. She (read) __________ it tonight.

35. Do you mind (disturb) __________ when you are working?

Part III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (5 pts)

36. This house has been so (TASTE) __________ decorated that it is very popular.

37. Diwali, “Festival of Light” is a (RELIGION) __________ festival.

38. The yellow color of five-colored sticky rice (SYMBOL) __________ Earth.

39. First (IMPRESS) __________ is very important in the process of interviewing.

40. Two decades ago, (ENVIRONMENT) __________ predicted that we would run out of certain raw materials.

Part IV. Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed to make the sentence correct (questions 41-45). (5 pts)

Example: Line 1: effect => affect

American foods began to effect the rest of the world. American emphasis on convenient and rapid consumption is best represent in fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries, and soft drinks. By the 1960s and 1970s fast foods became one of America’s strongest exports as franchises for McDonald’s and Burger King spread across Europe and other parts of the world, including Russia and China. Traditional meals cooked at home and consumed at a leisure pace gave way to quick lunches and dinners eaten on the run as other countries imitated American cultural patterns.

By the late 20th century Americans had become more conscious of their diets, eating more poultry, fish and vegetables, and fewer beef. Cooks began to rediscover many world cuisines in 3forms closer to their original. In California, chefs combined fresh fruits and vegetables available with ingredients and spices borrowed from immigrant kitchens to create an innovative cooking style that was lighter than traditional French, but much interesting and varied than typical American cuisine.

No  Line  Mistake Correction

41.     

42.     

43.     

44.     

45.     


SECTION D. READING (25 pts)

Part I. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 pts)

Tourism (46) __________ an important role in the economic development of every country in the world. Many countries need the money from tourism to help their people survive. (47) __________, travel and tourism have negative impacts. Vehicles such as buses, cars, trains, and other (48) __________ of transport that carry tourists can cause air pollution. In addition, some people do not save energy when they stay in hotels. For example, they forget to turn (49) __________ the lights or televisions before they leave the room. Moreover, many tourists throw a huge amount of waste everywhere (50) __________ makes the environment polluted. That’s why (51) __________ is important for people to respect the places they visit. There (52) __________ some ways you can help to protect the environment.

Don’t throw rubbish on streets, beaches, or in the countryside. Don’t throw anything into the sea, especially plastic bags. Every year, many aquatic animals die (53) __________ of polluted water. Don’t use too (54) __________ water or electricity. Use energy wisely and sensibly. Don’t buy any products made (55) __________ endangered species. Don’t take anything from the sea.

Part 2. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete. (10 pts)

Around the age (56) __________ sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. Do I stay on at school and hopefully, go on to university later? Do I leave and start work or begin a training (57) __________? The decision is yours, but it may be (58) __________ remembering two things: There is more unemployment (59) __________ those who haven’t been to university, and people who have the right (60) __________ will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go (61) __________ into a job, there are many opportunities for training. Getting qualifications will (62) __________ you get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (63) __________ you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (64) __________ possibility. This way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (65) __________ practical work experience.

56. A. at B. in C. on D. of

57. A. school B. class  C. course D. term

58. A. worth  B. necessary  C. important  D. useful

59. A. between  B. among  C. with D. through

60. A. notes  B. papers C. skills D. arts

61. A. rather B. straight C. direct D. just

62. A. permit B. help C. let  D. give

63. A. where  B. while  C. when D. what

64. A. also B. again  C. another  D. always

65. A. getting  B. making C. taking D. doing

Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question from the four choices (A or B, C, D). (5 pts)

Will humans someday live and work on Mars? Many scientists think so. In fact, they are already working on plans to turn Mars into a new Earth. 

Humans need three basic things to live: water to drink, air to breathe, and food to eat. Because of the lack of these necessities, it isn’t possible to live on Mars right now. For one thing, there is not enough oxygen. There is also no liquid water - just some ice. So how can we make Mars habitable? The answer, say scientists, is a process called terraforming. 

Terraforming means changing the environment of a planet so that it is similar to Earth’s. On Mars, the average temperature is about minus 60 degrees Celsius. So one of the main goals of terraforming Mars is to warm it up. One idea for warming Mars comes from a problem here on Earth - climate change. Most scientists agree that Earth is becoming warmer due to increased levels of greenhouse gases in our atmosphere. We might create similar conditions on Mars by building factories that release greenhouse gases. The gases will change the atmosphere on Mars. Rain will fall, and it may be possible to grow plants for food. The plants will add more oxygen to the air. 

There will be many difficulties in terraforming Mars. The project could take many centuries, and the cost will be high. We have some of the technology, such as the ability to create greenhouse gases, but not the money. However, life on Mars is a real possibility for future generations.

66. What is the best title for this passage?

A. Journey to Mars  B. At Home on Mars

C. Exploration of Mars  D. Mars Orbiter Mission

67. Why can’t humans breathe on Mars?

A. Because there is no liquid water.  B. Because there is no food to eat.

C. Because the weather is too cold. D. Because there is not enough oxygen.

68. One way to warm up Mars is __________.

A. to change the environment of the planet

B. to add more oxygen to the air

C. to create more greenhouse gases on the planet

D. to plant trees on the planet

69. It can be concluded from the last paragraph that terraforming Mars __________.

A. might be impossible for now  B. will probably be a hundred-year project

C. will cost less than expected D. will be done sometime soon

70. Which of the following is NOT true about Mars?

A. Water on it exists in ice form.  B. It has all the conditions necessary for life.

C. It is a very cold planet.  D. Its environment is different from Earth’s.

SECTION E. WRITING (10 pts)

Part I. Rewrite the following sentences, using the words given, so that the meaning stays the same. (5 pts)

71. There has been a sharp rise in the price of petrol this month.

=> The price _______________________________________________________________________________.

72. Jim used to swim more skillfully than he does now.

=> Jim doesn’t _____________________________________________________________________________.

73. This house is close to the sports ground.

=> This house isn’t __________________________________________________________________________.

74. My parents don’t mind your staying with us after the concert.

=> My parents are happy _____________________________________________________________________.

75. Her behavior annoyed me.

=> I found ________________________________________________________________________________.

Part II. Use the words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words. (5 pts)

76. It takes my sister half an hour to cook dinner for my family. (SPENDS)

=> My sister _______________________________________________________________________________.

77. Your jeans are too dirty to wear. (ENOUGH)

=> Your jeans _____________________________________________________________________________.

78. Calling Jim is pointless, because his phone is out of order. (NO)

=> It is ___________________________________________________________________________________.

79. It was very kind of you to help me. (GRATEFUL)

=> I am ___________________________________________________________________________________.

80. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)

=> Some __________________________________________________________________________________.

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