Trong quá trình ôn luyện để chinh phục các kỳ thi học sinh giỏi, việc tiếp cận những đề thi chất lượng từ các trường uy tín là vô cùng cần thiết. Bài viết này, Tài liệu diệu kỳ xin chia sẻ đến quý thầy cô và các em học sinh Đề thi chọn đội tuyển HSG cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm học 2025-2026 của THCS Trần Mai Ninh. Tải miễn phí trọn bộ tài liệu gồm đề thi, đáp án và file nghe tại bài viết.
Tóm tắt đề thi
Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 8 – THCS Trần Mai Ninh (2025–2026) – Thời gian: 150 phút | 06 trang | Gồm 5 phần, 100 điểm.
A. Listening (20đ): 4 phần – điền form (5 câu), True/False phỏng vấn (5 câu), trắc nghiệm về Tết VN (5 câu), điền tóm tắt (5 câu).
B. Phonetics (5đ): phát âm khác (3 câu), trọng âm (2 câu).
C. Grammar & Vocabulary (25đ): trắc nghiệm ngữ pháp + từ vựng (10 câu), chia động từ (5 câu), word form (5 câu), tìm lỗi sai (5 câu).
D. Reading (30đ): cloze test trắc nghiệm (10 câu), điền từ chủ đề noise pollution (10 câu), đọc hiểu food allergies (10 câu).
E. Writing (20đ): viết lại câu (10 câu, 2 dạng), viết đoạn 140–160 từ (chủ đề: outdoor activities vs computer games).
Tải đề HSG Tiếng Anh 8 cấp trường 2025–2026 (full Word + audio + đáp án + transcript)
Nếu bạn đang tìm kiếm một đề thi chất lượng để nâng cao trình độ Tiếng Anh và làm quen với kỳ thi học sinh giỏi, thì Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 8 – THCS Trần Mai Ninh 2025–2026 chắc chắn là một lựa chọn không nên bỏ qua. Đừng quên lưu lại và luyện tập thường xuyên để đạt kết quả tốt nhất trong các kỳ thi sắp tới!
Đáp án chính thức
📘 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI HSG TIẾNG ANH 8
THCS Trần Mai Ninh – Năm học 2025–2026
🔊 SECTION A: LISTENING (20 điểm)
Part I
1. Reade
2. JDA 2151623
3. 1 / one
4. 1201
5. suitcases
Part II
6. T
7. T
8. F
9. F
10. F
Part III
11. A
12. C
13. D
14. B
15. D
Part IV
16. feeding / eating
17. laboratory
18. water
19. wings
20. reliable
🔤 SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 điểm)
Question I
21. A
22. A
23. D
Question II
24. C
25. A
📚 SECTION C: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (30 điểm)
Question I
26. D
27. A
28. D
29. A
30. C
31. A
32. C
33. C
34. A
35. B
Question II
36. would have relocated
37. will have been digging
38. would be thriving
39. to have been distracting / to have distracted
40. is being performed
Question III
41. enliven / enlivened
42. untimely / ill-timed / mistimed
43. fruition
44. downpour
45. unite / unify
Question IV (Error Correction)
46. whose → their
47. notable → notably
48. which → who
49. another → other
50. In → On
Dòng tham khảo:
Line 00: bỏ “been”
📖 SECTION D: READING (30 điểm)
Question I
51. B
52. A
53. C
54. B
55. D
56. A
57. D
58. B
59. C
60. A
Question II
61. real / normal / daily / everyday / modern
62. on / over
63. middle
64. don’t / hardly / rarely / barely
65. from
66. into
67. however / nevertheless / nonetheless / unfortunately
68. either / an
69. such
70. exposure
Question III
71. A
72. C
73. A
74. D
75. B
76. A
77. C
78. D
79. D
80. A
✍️ SECTION E: WRITING (20 điểm)
Question I (Rewrite)
81. Most of my English colleagues have a preference for (drinking) tea over coffee.
82. The more qualifications you can/amass, the more successful you will be/become.
83. There has been a decline/decrease/fall/drop/reduction in the number of students applying for music lessons this year.
84. I have been rather preoccupied with my work lately.
85. Were it not for his partial deafness, he could/would communicate on the phone easily.
86. Neither candidate is in favor with me, but Michael Jones is the lesser of two evils.
87. She made a song and dance about one little mouse in the kitchen!
88. There has been no love lost between Tom and Nick since their fierce fight.
89. However hard Tina tried, she couldn’t get her head round the question.
90. Let’s get this show on the road before all the guests arrive.
📝 Writing Task (10 điểm)
• Task Response: 3.0
• Organization: 2.0
• Vocabulary: 2.0
• Grammar: 2.0
• Length & Coherence: 1.0
Tổng: 10.0 điểm
📊 Cách tính điểm
• Thang điểm: 20
• Làm tròn: 0.25
Công thức:
👉 Điểm bài thi = (Tổng số câu đúng) / 5
UBND PHƯỜNG HẠC THÀNH
TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN MAI NINH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG CẤP TRƯỜNG
NĂM HỌC 2025 – 2026
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 8
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
SECTION A: LISTENING (20.0 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu âm thanh. Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tỉn hiệu nhạc.
• Mọi hướng dẫn bằng tiếng Anh đã có trong bài nghe. Giáo viên coi thi chỉ bật một lần.
PART I. Complete the extract below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. (5 pts)
AMBASSADOR HOTEL
Registration Card
Name of the customer: (1) __________
Passport No: (2) __________
Number of customers: (3) __________
Room No: (4) __________
Luggage: Two (5) __________ and one bag.
Part II. You will hear a radio interview, decide whether the following sentences are true (T) or false (F). (5 points)
6. The idea for the invention occurred to Ryan while waiting at a Burger King restaurant.
7. Ryan used the idea when he entered a science contest.
8. Ryan’s invention helps deaf people learn sign language.
9. Ryan had no previous experience of building electronic devices.
10. Ryan has sold his invention to a deaf community centre.
Part III. Listen a talk about Viet Nam preparing for Lunar New Year and choose the best answer A, B, C or D.
11. There is a __________ difference between Hanoi and Beijing?
A. one-hour time B. two-hour time C. three-hour time D. four-hour time
12. What do people hope for during Tet?
A. money B. new clothes C. better things D. better living standard
13. Two things that people are working overtime to prepare are __________.
A. pork rolls and fruits B. fruits and crafts
C. food and fruits D. food and crafts
14. How many flower markets opened in Ho Chi Minh City?
A. about 68 B. over 68 C. 68 D. nearly 68
15. What are people working 24 hours to make?
A. flowers B. fruits C. cakes D. pork rolls
Part IV. Listen and complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. Write your answer in the space provided.
LOOKING FOR ASIAN HONEY BEES
Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only insects, and cough up small bits of skeleton and other products in a pellet.
Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for (16) __________. They collect the pellets and take them to a (17) __________ for analysis.
Here (18) __________ is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the (19) __________ of Asian bees in the pellets.
The benefit of this research is that the result is more (20) __________ than searching for live Asian bees.
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5.0 points)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (3.0 points)
21. A. Christ B. Christen C Christian D. Christmas
22. A. massage B. pilgrimage C. pillage D. dosage
23. A. dogged B. markedly C. advisedly D. plugged
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question (2.0 points)
24. A. deficiency B. psychology C. ecological D. competitor
25. A. mature B. nature C. culture D. measure
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (25 points)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10.0 points)
26. I wish to study English, __________?
A. would I B. didn’t I C. did I D. may I
27. At the deep bottom of Atlantic __________.
A. lay the Titanic B. lied the Titanic C. did the Titanic lie D. had the Titanic lain
28. __________ that she burst into tears.
A. Such was angry girl B. So angry she was
C. She was angry so D. Her anger was such
29. I thought Gene would always stick by me, but when I got into trouble, he turned out to be a __________ friend.”
A. fair-weather B. half-hearted C. single-minded D. hot-blooded
30. So many banks try to lure customers by promising the __________.
A. sun B. orbit C. moon D. cloud
31. She glared angrily at everyone and __________ out of the room.
A. stormed B. streamed C. flooded D. flowed
32. The __________ worker in manufacturing industry and his union are going the way of the farmer.
A. yellow-collar B. orange-collar C. blue-collar D. brown-collar
33. Everything was at __________ when we arrived, as they had only moved into the house the day before.
A. fits and starts B. safe and sound C. sixes and sevens D. song and dance
34. The party was ____________ full swing when I arrived. Everyone was singing and dancing
A. in B. on C. about D. of
35. “Would you mind turning down your stereo ?’’ – “__________.”
A. I’m really sorry! I ‘m not paying attention B. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that
C. No. I don’t D. Yes, I do
Question II. Write the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (5.0 points)
36. Were she to accept the offer, she (relocate) __________ to Berlin by now.
37. Do you realize that if the workmen are still there on Monday, they (dig) __________ up the road for a whole month?
38. If John hadn’t decided to stop working to look after her children, her medical practice (thrive) __________ now.
39. His personal problems seem (distract) __________ him from his work lately.
40. I think the play (perform) __________ now.
Question III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5 points).
41. His witty retorts __________ the otherwise dull atmosphere. (LIVE)
42. His __________ arrival at the meeting caused him to miss the crucial discussion. (TIME)
43. At last our plans came to __________ after months of hard work. (FRUIT)
44. There was a heavy __________ yesterday afternoon which completely ruined the church Garden Party. (POUR)
45. They are composed of algae and fungi which __________ to satisfy the needs of the lichens. (UNITY)
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes (only ONE word for ONE mistake from 46 to 50. Find out the mistakes and correct them. Write the correct answers on your answer sheet. (5.0 points)
Exampe: which what
Women are experts at gossiping, and they always talk about trivial things, or at least that’s which men have been always thought. However, some new research suggests that when women talk to women, whose conversations are far from frivolous, and cover many more topics (up to 40 subjects) than when men talk to other men. Women’s conversations range from health to their houses, from politics to fashion, from films to family, from education to relationship problems. Football is notable absent. Men tend to have a more limited range of subjects, the most popular being work, sport, jokes, cars, and women.
According to Professor Petra Boynton, a psychologist at University College London, which interviewed over 1000 women, women also tend to move quickly from one subject to another in conversation, whereas men usually stick to one subject for longer periods of time.
At work, this difference can be an advantage for men, where they can put another matters aside and concentrate fully on the topic being discussed. In the other hand, it also means that they sometimes find it hard to concentrate when several things have to be discussed at the same time in a meeting.
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30.0 points)
Question I. Fill in the blank with one of four options to complete the passage. (10.0 points)
Dutch children enjoy their freedom
“Let them be free” is the golden rule for child-rearing in the Netherlands. No wonder Dutch kids have been compared Europe’s most fortunate. From a tender age, their opinions are (51) __________, their wishes respected, and there is no homework until their last year in preparatory school. Some would (52) __________ that the tendency of Dutch society to encourage infants to experience whatever they please has (53) __________ a whole generation into spoilt, undisciplined brats. Others say family members are remarkably open with one (54) __________, feeling free to say anything, and that the way parents (55) __________ with their children’s anxieties means that the children are well-adjusted, (56) __________ is shown up by the results of the survey.
Dr. Gerrit Breeusma, head of development psychology at the University of Groningen says the survey’s results came as no (57) __________. “Children have always played a very important role in Holland but there were (58) __________ within families during the Sixties, usually over matters of discipline and conformity. As a result, the generations growing up at that time have made sure they get on better with their kids,” he added.
(59) __________, in several Dutch police precincts, such liberalism is not viewed positively. In an attempt to tackle underage heavy drinking, police have taken to bringing home teenagers and threatening parents with obligatory attendance at courses on excessive alcohol problems or hefty unless they keep their children under (60) __________.
51. A. regarded B. valued C. recognized D. measured
52. A. argue B. criticize C. defend D. judge
53. A. resulted B. created C. turned D. brought
54. A. other B. another C. the other D. others
55. A. handle B. understand C. analyze D. empathize
56. A. which B. who C. where D. that
57. A. doubt B. difference C. consequence D. surprise
58. A. beliefs B. conflicts C. decisions D. contradictions
59. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Although
60. A. control B. limits C. restriction D. rule
Question II. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word (10.0 points)
NOISE POLLUTION
Most of us are very used to the sounds we hear in (61) __________ life. Loud music, the television, people talking (62) __________ their phone, the traffic and even pets barking in the (63) __________ of the night. All of these have become a part of the urban culture and (64) __________ disturb us. However, when the sound of the television keeps you (65) __________ sleeping all night or the traffic starts to give you a headache, it stops becoming just noise and starts turning (66) __________ noise pollution. For many of us, the concept of pollution is limited to nature and resources. (67) __________, noise that tends to disrupt the natural rhythm of life makes for one solid pollutant.
By definition, noise pollution takes place when there is (68) __________ excessive amount of noise or an unpleasant sound that causes temporary disruption in the natural balance. This definition is usually applicable to sounds or noises that are unnatural in their volume or their production. Our environment is (69) __________ that it has become difficult to escape noise. Even electrical appliances at home have a constant hum or beeping sound. By and large, lack of urban planning increases the (70) __________ to unwanted sounds. This is why understanding noise pollution is necessary to control it in time.
Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. (10.0 points)
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book Why your Child is Hyperactive. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
71. The topic of this passage is __________.
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
72. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to __________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
73. The word symptoms is closest in meaning to __________.
A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D. prescriptions
74. The phrase set off is closest in meaning to __________.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
75. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
76. The word hyperactive is closest in meaning to __________.
A. overly active B. unusually low activity
C. excited D. inquisitive
77. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant’s __________.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods
78. The word these refers to __________.
A. food additives B. food colorings
C. unnutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates
79. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
80. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT __________.
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
SECTION E: WRITING (20.0 points)
Question I. Rewrite the following sentences with the same meaning. (5 points)
81. Most of my English colleagues prefer to drink tea rather than coffee.
Most of my English colleagues have a _______________________________________________
82. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
The more ______________________________________________________________________
83. Fewer students have applied for music lessons this year.
There has been _________________________________________________________________
84. Lately I have thought of nothing but work.
I have been rather _______________________________________________________________
85. He’s partially deaf so he finds it difficult to communicate on the phone.
Were it _______________________________________________________________________
Question II. Rewrite the following sentences using the given words. Do not alter these words. (5 points)
86. I don’t like either candidate but Michael Jones is not quite as bad. (LESSER)
Neither candidate is in ___________________________________________________________
87. What a fuss she made over one little mouse in the kitchen! (DANCE)
She __________________________________________________ one little mouse in the kitchen!
88. Tom and Nick started to hate each other after getting into a fierce fight. (LOST)
There has been no _______________________________________________________________
89. After hours of effort, Tina could not work out what the question was asking her to do. (HEAD)
However ___________________________________________________________ the question.
90. We must get started before all the guests arrive. (ROAD)
Let’s ___________________________________________________ before all the guests arrive.
Question III. Paragraph writing (10 points)
Write a paragraph on the following topic:
Some people think that outdoor activities are more beneficial for children’s development than playing computer games.To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. You should write about 140 to 160 words.
———- THE END ———-
