Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh Hải Dương môn Tiếng Anh 9 THCS năm học 2022-2023 có đáp án bản PDF

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GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 

HẢI DƯƠNG 

ĐỂ CHÍNH THỨC 

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A. LISTENING 

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 9 

Ngày thi: 11/01/2023 

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi gồm có 07 trang) 

Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi. 

Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết chữ cái A hoặc B, C, D. Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài. (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu gil) 

Hướng dẫn làm bài nghe: 

Bài nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài. 

I. Listen to FIVE short conversations and choose the correct answer A, or B, C to each question. (5.0 points) Question 1. What is probably true about the teacher? 

A. She wants to stay after school to clean the desks. 

B. She wants students to stop writing on their desks. 

C. She would like it if students wrote on their desks with pencil. Question 2. What does the principal instruct the students to do? 

A. Eat lunch outside on the playground B. Clean up after they eat lunch Question 3. What is the subject of the announcement? 

C. Talk with the cafeteria workers 

B. Where to sign up for flu shots 

C. Flu shots given by the school 

A. The dangers of flu season Question 4. Why does the teacher talk about helping the students? 

A. To give students a topic 

Question 5. What is the teacher explaining? 

A. Details of the students’ next project 

B. What historical time to choose 

B. To warn students about getting lost C. To tell students not to worry 

C. How to be creative to help students learn 

II. Listen and fill in the missing information in the numbered space with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS/ NUMBERS. (5.0 points) 

Transport from Airport to Milton 

Options 

Question 6. 

* Car hire 

(6). 

– don’t want to drive 

– expensive 

* Greyhound bus 

-$ (7) __________ one way, $27.50 return 

– direct to the City centre 

– long (8) 

* Airport (9) 

door to door service 

– need to (10) 

Question 7. 

Question 8. 

Question 9. 

Question 10. 

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tion 26. 0 

Quest 

A. North Car 

B. few m 

C. th 

quest 

III. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about an exhibition of food and cooking. For each fill in the missing information in the numbered space with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS/ NUMBERS. (5.0 poin 

THE GOOD FOOD SHOW 

At the Capital Exhibition Centre 

At the show, you can: 

*buy Jane Adams’ (11)_____ about making cakes 

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get advice about buying (12) 

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* watch how to cook (13) 

just with vegetables 

* learn how to make a (14) 

in less than fifteen minutes 

* taste food from many different 

countries – the food from Canada is specially recommended. 

The show finishes on (15). 

Question 11. 

Question 12. 

Question 13. 

Question 14. 

Question 15. 

IV. You will hear a radio interview with a woman called Ivana Thomas, whose father wrote natural history articles for newspapers and magazines. For questions 16-20, choose the correct answer A, or B, C, D. (5.0 points) Question 16. Why was Ivana’s father pleased to be asked to write a weekly newspaper column? 

A. He was bored with the other work he was doing. 

C. He had made suggestions to the newspaper. 

Question 17. Why did Ivana’s father find his job in a museum 

A. He wasn’t interested in sea creatures. 

C. He wasn’t able to study a range of things. 

B. He had to support a growing family. 

D. He was out of work at that moment. frustrating? 

B. He wasn’t very good at detailed work. D. He couldn’t explore anywhere he liked. 

Question 18. Why did Ivana’s father take the family on long bus trips? 

A. to teach them about wildlife. 

C. to look for a new place to live. 

B. to get ideas for his articles. D. to explore new lands. 

Question 19. What did Ivana’s father encourage his children to do on their visits to the countryside? 

A. take photographs of rare things they saw. 

B. take notes about anything interesting they found. 

C. relax after stressful days at school. 

D. draw the ordinary creatures they observed. 

Question 20. Why did Ivana and her brothers choose to do similar jobs to their father’s? 

A. They didn’t seriously consider other careers. 

B. They were persuaded to do so by their father. 

C. They weren’t good enough at other subjects to pursue careers in them. 

D. They found their father’s long bus trips interesting. 

B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS 

I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each question below. (10.0 points) Question 21. Mary feels proud of herself since she 

A. has been making B. made 

Question 22. Thank you so much for your whole-hearted 

A. couldn’t complete B. didn’t complete 

great progress in her study for the last few months. C. is making 

D. had made assistance, without which, I C. don’t complete 

Question 23. Tom regrets not finishing his assignment on time as he didn’t recollect 

B. having informed C. to inform 

A. to be informed 

Question 24. The little girl is gazing in admiration at the dolls 

the work in the allotted time. D. couldn’t have completed 

about the change of the deadline. 

D. having been informed 

in the shop window. 

B. which display A. displaying 

C. displayed Question 25. Of the two newly-designed car models, this one has drawn 

A. the most attention B. the more attention C. more attention 

D. were displayed from the public. 

D. as much attention as 

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ch quest 

0 poin 

stion 26. Once known as the “Golden State” due to its gold mines, 

A. North Carolina today mines few metallic minerals B. few metallic minerals are mined in North Carolina today 

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C. there are few metallic minerals mined in North Carolina today D. today in North Carolina few metallic minerals are mined Question 27. Mary became so tired of city life that she decided to buy a piece of land 

A. out of the ordinary B. as the crow flies C. far and away 

D. in the middle of nowhere 

Question 28. Many people assume that interpreting is a mechanical process of changing one sentence from language A into language B. 

A. Therefore 

it is a complex art. 

B. Otherwise 

Question 29. The new comer feels rather 

A. worn out 

B. self-assured 

C. Instead 

D. Thus 

as other students do not include her in their activities during the break. 

C. torn between 

D. left out 

Question 30. The leaders from the two countries have tried their best to set up full diplomatic 

A. associations 

B. relations 

C. connections 

Question 31. The man almost had an accident because a long vehicle 

A. took 

B. put 

Question 32. Looking up to people of 

C. drew 

is considered to be a deeply 

C. endurance 

A. seniority 

B. expectancy Question 33. Mr. Smith’s outspoken views would frequently bring him into 

C. confusion 

B. controversy 

A. conflict 

Question 34. The coach’s approach to sports teaching really 

C. breaks 

D. glues 

right out in front of his car. D. pulled 

rooted tradition in Vietnam. 

D. ageism 

with his current boss. 

D. contrast 

the mold so it needs time to prove its effectiveness. 

D. ruins 

A. cuts 

B. shatters 

Question 35. The last question of the test was really tricky so I had no alternative but to 

A. cast 

B. burst 

Question 36. Mary is ordering her food at a restaurant. 

Waiter: “How would you like your steak, Miss?” 

Mary: “______ 

please.” 

A. Out of this world B. Well-done 

C. explode 

the answer. 

D. risk 

C. Good job 

D. Great 

Question 37. Tom is talking to Mary during the school break. 

Mary: “Is it far from your house to your school, Tom?” Tom: ” 

A. No, about five-minute walk 

C. Yes, It’s a great ride 

Question 38. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel. 

B. Yes, it’s a nice walk 

D. No, just on foot 

Liz: “Guess what? My first novel has just been published.” 

Andrew: ” 

A. It’s my pleasure. 

B. Congratulations! C. Better luck next time! 

D. It’s very kind of you. 

Question 39. Mary and Thomas are talking about Mary’s party this weekend. 

Thomas: “Can I bring a friend to the party this Saturday, Mary?” Mary: “____ 

A. The more, the merrier 

C. There’s no doubt about it 

B. It’s nice of you to say so, many thanks 

D. Not at all, don’t mention it 

Question 40. Jane and Mike are talking about Rachel, their classmate. 

Jane: “Rachel is an excellent violist, isn’t she?” 

Mike: ” 

A. No doubt 

She is bound to win the prize if she plays this well during the competition. 

B. You must be kidding C. I don’t think so 

D. That’s the least I could do 

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cion 54. 

II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (5.0 points) 

Question 41. Sarah was a bit (MORAL)________ by her performance in the first exam, but she was determined to more effort into the ones left. 

Question 42. Written sources are considered absolutely (DISPENSE) 

for today’s history teaching. 

their diet. 

Question 43. Women who are slimming can never enjoy a meal without being afraid of (ORGANIZE) Question 44. To be an astronaut, a person, at the beginning of his/ her training, has to be accustomed to (WEIGH) 

in a spacecraft. 

Question 45. Ben has been (MEASURE) 

would have done without him. 

important to the success of our company. We don’t know what we 

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence (A, or B, C, D) that needs correcting. (5.0 points) Question 46. Realistic novels, in trying to present life as it actually is, have written many works that are noted for their 

artistry of style. 

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Question 47. Developed in the early 1990s in Canada, synchronized swimming is a sport performed exclusive by women, 

rather than by men. 

Question 48. The results of our marketing survey show that there will be quite a demand for electric vehicles in the ahead years. 

D Question 49. Every employee is expected to be competent and industrial because wage rates depend on levels of productivity. 

Question 50. An understanding of engineering theories and problems are impossible until basic arithmetic is fully mastered. 

C. READING: 

I. Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Choose the correct explanation A, or B, C, D. (5.0 points) Question 51. 

Kate 

The tennis match will be canceled if it’s Bob is letting Kate know snowing, and we’ll go to the theater instead. 

We’ll know for sure in a couple of hours. Bob 

Question 52. 

Home visits: 

Your doctor’s time is valuable. Please do not call him/her out unless necessary. 

Question 53. 

YORKSHIRE COLLEGE 

There are some parking spaces available for visitors. Please ask at reception. 

A. there is a chance they might not play tennis, depending on the weather. 

B. they will go to the theater in a few hours, so she must get ready. C. they are not going to play tennis because of a change of plans. D. they will certainly go to the theater unless the weather gets worse. 

A. You will have to pay if the doctor visits you. B. The doctor will visit you in hospital if neccessary. C. You can call the doctor out if you are seriously ill. D. The doctor can only visit you during the day. 

A. Visitors are requested to park outside the reception area. 

B. Please tell the reception where you have parked your car. C. Visitors who wish to park should ask at reception. 

D. Details of parking for students are available from the reception. 

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ned to 

stion 54. 

百 

Fire extinguisher Do not remove from this location 

Question 55. 

WARNING 

UNSAFE FOR SWIMMING Water temporarily POLLUTED because of high bacteria levels which may pose a risk to your health 

A. If the fire extinguisher is removed, there will be a fire. 

B. Moving the fire extinguisher to a new place is not allowed. C. The fire extinguisher is dangerous if taken to a new location. D. This is the only location for all fire extinguishers. 

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A. The water is not suitable for drinking, but swimming is possible. B. High water levels make it unsafe for swimming. 

C. Swimming is dangerous because of the dirty water. D. People can drink the water at their own risk. 

in 

II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, or B, C, D best fits each space. (10.0 points) 

It is well-known that life expectancy is longer in Japan than in most other countries. A (56) ___________ report also shows that Japan has the longest health expectancy in the world. A healthy long life is the result of the (57) social environment. Scientists are trying to work (58) 

exactly what keeps elderly Japanese people so healthy, and whether there is a lesson to be learnt from their lifestyles for the rest of us. Should we (59) ___ any changes to our eating habits, for instance, or go jogging each day before breakfast? Is there some secret ingredient in the Japanese diet that is particularly (60) 

to the human body? 

Another factor (61) 

to the rapid population aging in Japan is a decline in birthrate. Although longer life should be celebrated, it is actually considered a social problem. The number of older people has doubled in the last half century and that has increased pension and medical (62) . The country could soon be facing an economic problem, few younger people working and paying taxes to 

if there are so many old people to be looked after, and (63) support them. 

Raising the retirement age from 65 to 70 could be one solution to the problem. Work can give the elderly a (64) of responsibility and mission in life. It’s important that the elderly play active roles in the society and live in (65) 

with all generations. 

Question 56. A. late 

B. recent 

Question 57. A. increase 

B. progress 

C. contemporary C. growth 

D. new 

D. improvement 

Question 58. A. for 

B. out 

C. in 

D. off 

Question 59. A. do 

B. set 

B. supportive 

Question 60. A. advocating Question 61. A. contributing Question 62. A. expenses Question 63. A. abruptly Question 64. A. sense 

B. triggering 

B. values 

B. relatively 

C. make 

C. advantageous 

C. resulting C. fares 

C. considerately 

B. sentiment 

Question 65. A. propotion 

B. connection 

C. feeling C. harmony 

D. give D. beneficial 

D. exerting D. profits 

D. approximately D. characteristic 

D. relation 

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Read the 

Scientists 

eory, ecologists 

a volcano i 

million 

air f 

111. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, or B, C, D to indicate the correct answer to ea affect weather 

the questions. (10.0 points) 

Ralph Earl was born into a Connecticut farm family in 1751. He chose early to become a painter and looked what training was available in his home state and in Boston. Earl was one of the first American artists to paint landscape Among his first paintings were scenes from the Revolutionary war battles of Lexington and Concord. In 1778 Earl went to London to study with Benjamin West, a master of landscape painting, for four years. 

When Earl returned to the United States, he was jailed for fifteen months for outstanding debts. While still a prisoner, he painted portraits of some of New York City’s most elegant society women and husbands. After his release, he took up the trade of an itinerant portrait painter, working his way through southern New England and New York. Earl didn’t flatter his subjects, but his portraits show a deep understanding of them, perhaps because he had sprung from the same roots. 

Among Earl’s most famous paintings is his portrait of Justice Olivier Ellsworth and his wife, Abigail. To provide counterpoint to the severity of the couple, he accurately details the relative luxury of the Ellsworth’s interior furnishings. The view through the window behind them shows sunlit fields, well-kept fences, and a bend of the Connecticut River. One of Earl’s paintings is something of an anomaly. Reclining Hunter, which for many years was attributed to Thomas Gainsborough, shows a well-dressed gentleman resting beneath a tree. In the foreground, he displays a pile of birds, the result of a day’s hunt. The viewer can also see a farmer’s donkey lying in the background, another of the hunter’s victims. This outrageously funny portrait couldn’t have been commissioned – no one would have wanted to be portrayed in such an absurd way. However, this painting uncharacteristically shows Earl’s wit as well as his uncommon technical skills. Question 66. What is the author’s main purpose? 

A. To compare the art of Ralph Earl and Thomas Gainsborough 

B. To describe the art scene in New York in the late 18th century 

C. To discuss the life and work of an American painter 

D. To trace Ralph Earl’s artistic influences 

Question 67. Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as a subject of one of Earl’s paintings? 

B. Fruit and Flowers C. Landscapes 

B. student 

Question 68. According to the passage, Benjamin West was Ralph Earl’s 

A. Battle scenes 

A. rival 

C. subject 

D. People 

D. teacher 

Question 69. Which of the following could be substituted for the word “outstanding” in paragraph 2 without changing the meaning of the sentence? 

A. excellent 

B. illegal 

C. shocking 

D. unpaid 

Question 70. The word “itinerant” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to which of the following? 

B. innovative 

C. successful 

D. talented 

A. traveling Question 71. The author uses the phrase “sprung from the same roots” in paragraph 2 to indicate that Ralph Earl and his subjects 

A. lived in the same town 

B. had the same background 

D. were about the same age 

C. were equally successful 

Question 72. According to the passage, one of the distinguishing features for the portrait of Olivier and Abigail Ellsworth is the contrast between 

A. the straight fences and curving Connecticut River 

B. the two styles used to paint the two figures 

C. the plainness of the figures and the luxury of the furnishings 

D. the sunlit fields and the dark interior 

Question 73. Why does the author refer to Reclining Hunter as “something of an anomaly” in paragraph 3? 

A. It is quite humorous. B. It is so severe. 

Question 74. The word “he” in paragraph 3 refers to 

A. Ralph Earl 

B. the farmer 

Question 75. The author’s attitude towards Ralph Earl is 

A. unflattering 

B. antagonistic 

C. It shows Earl’s talent. 

D. It was commissioned. 

C. Thomas Gainsborough 

D. the hunter 

D. aggressive 

C. admiring 

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each 

d f 

Read the passage and state whether the statements below are true (T) or false (F). (5.0 points) 

Scientists claim that air pollution causes a decline in the world’s average air temperature. In order to prove that heory, ecologists have turned to historical data in relation to especially huge volcanic eruptions. They suspect that volcanoes affect weather changes that are similar to air pollution. One source of information is the effects of the erruption of Tambora, a volcano in Sumbawa, the Dutch East Indies, in April 1815. The largest recorded volcanic eruption, Tambora threw 150 million tons of fine ash into the stratoshere. The ash from a volcano spreads worldwide in a few days and remains in the air for years. Its effect is to turn incoming solar radiation into space and thus cool the earth. For example, records of weather in England show that between April and November 1825, the average temperature fell 4.5°F. During the next twenty four months, England suffered one of the coldest periods of its history. Farmers’ records from April 1815 to December 1818 indicate frost throughout the spring and summer and sharp decreases in crop and livestock markets. Since there was a time lag of several years between cause and effect, by the time the world’s agricultural commodity community had deteriorated, no one realized the cause. Ecologists today warn that we face a two-fold menace. The ever-present possibility of volcanic eruptions, such as that of Mt. St. Helens in Washington, added to man’s pollution of the atmosphere with oil, gas, coal and other polluting substances, may bring us increasingly colder weather. 

STATEMENTS 

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Question 76. Because incoming radiation is turned into space, there is a decline in the world’s average air temperature. 

Question 77. The effects of Tambora’s eruption were evidence of pollution’s cooling the earth. Question 78. The cause of cold weather in England from 1815 to 1818 was volcanic ash in the atmosphere. Question 79. No one realized the cause of the deterioration of the world’s argricultural commodity markets because weather forecasts were inaccurate. 

Question 80. If, as some scientists predict, the world ends in ice, the cause might be modern man’s pollution of the air and volcanic eruptions 

D. WRITING 

LL 

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5.0 points) 

Question 81. Mr. Johnson is partially deaf, so he finds it difficult to communicate on the phone. 

→ Were it………………….. 

Question 82. The fund-raisers have not officially decided where to send the proceeds of the concert. 

→→ No……… 

Question 83. I went down with flu as soon as I had recovered from bronchitis. 

→ No sooner……. 

Question 84. It was the ability to incorporate loan words that made English so rich in vocabulary. → English became……. 

Question 85. You may be dismissed if you fail to observe the company’s working principles. 

→ Failure ……… 

II. Daisy has recently been spending too much time on social networking sites, which distracts her from her school work and regular face-to-face communication with her friends and family. Write a letter of at least 80 words to advise her on how to escape the problem. (10.0 points) 

NOTE: You are REQUIRED to begin and end your letter as followed: Dear Daisy, 

Love, Jenny 

III. Write a paragraph of at least 150 words about some changes that you would like to see in order to improve school life. (15.0 points) 

=== THE END == 

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HẢI DƯƠNG 

ĐÁP ÁN DỰ THẢO 

A. LISTENING 

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 

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3. C 

I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

2. B 

II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

1. B 

6. a cab/ taxi 

9. shuttle 

III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each 

11. (latest)/ (new) book 

14. dessert 

7. 15/ fifteen 

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 9 (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm có 02 trang) 

4. C 

5. A 

8. wait 

10. reserve a seat 

correct answer 12. (fresh) fish 15. March 23rd 

IV. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

13. (a) lunch 

16. B 

17. C 

18. B 

19. D 

20. A 

B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY 

LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS 

I. (10.0 points): 0.5 point for each correct answer 

21. A 

22. D 

23. D 

24. C 

25. B 

26. A 

27. D 

28. C 

29. D 

30. B 

31. D 

32. A 

33. A 

34. C 

35. D 

36. B 

37. A 

38. B 

39. A 

40. A 

II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 41. DEMORALISED/ DEMORALIZED 

43. DISORGANIZING/ DISORGANISING 44. WEIGHTLESSNESS 

III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

42. INDISPENSABLE 

45. IMMEASURABLY 

47.C 

48. D 

49. C 

50. B 

46. A 

C. READING: 

I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

51. A 

52. C 

53. C 

54. B 

55. C 

II. (10.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

56. B 

57. D 

58. B 

59. C 

60. D 

61. A 

62. A 

63. B 

64. A 

65. C 

III (10.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

66. C 

67. B 

68. D 

69. D 

70. A 

71. B 

72. C 

73. A 

74. D 

75. C 

IV. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

76. T 

77. T 

78. T 

79. F 

80. T 

D. WRITING 

I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer 

Question 81. Were it not for Mr. Johnson’s partial deafness/ the fact that Mr. Johnson is partially deaf, he wouldn’t find it difficult to communicate on the phone/ it wouldn’t be difficult for him to communicate on the phone/ it would be easy for him to communicate on the phone/ he would find it easy to communicate on the phone. 

Question 82. No official decision has been made (by the fund-raisers) on/ about where to send the proceeds of the concert. Question 83. No sooner had I recovered from bronchitis than I went down with flu. 

Question 84. English became so rich in vocabulary thanks to/ due to/ because of/owing to its ability to incorporate loan words. Question 85. Failure to observe/ follow/ obey the company’s working principles may/ could/ might lead to/ result in your dismissal/ your being dismissed. 

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II. (10.0 points) 

1. Form: 

-Correct form of an informal letter (1 point) 

2. Task fulfillment: 

-Task completed with relevant information (2 points) -Well-organized (2 points) 

3. Language: 

– Accurate grammar (2 points) 

Appropriate vocabulary (2 points) 

-Correct spelling and punctuation (1 points) 

III. (15.0 points) 

Score of 14-15: A paragraph at this level: 

shows very effective writing skills 

⚫ 

is very well organized and well developed 

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uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas 

⚫ displays consistent ability in the use of language 

demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice 

Score of 11-13: A paragraph at this level: 

⚫ 

shows effective writing skills 

⚫ is well organized and well developed 

uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas displays consistent ability in the use of language 

demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice 

Score of 9-10: A paragraph at this level: 

may address some parts of the task more effectively than others is generally well organized and developed 

uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea 

displays ability in the use of the language 

shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary 

Score of 7 – 8: A paragraph at this level: 

⚫ addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task 

⚫ is adequately organized and developed 

⚫ uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea 

shows adequate but possibly inconsistent ability with sentence structure 

may contain some usage errors that make the meaning unclear 

Score of 5-6: A paragraph at this level may reveal one or more of the following weaknesses: 

inadequate organization or development 

⚫ 

poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations 

⚫ a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms 

numerous errors in sentence structure and/or usage 

Score of 3-4: A paragraph at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following weaknesses: 

⚫ 

serious disorganization or underdevelopment 

little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics 

⚫ serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage 

serious problems with focus 

Score of 1-2: A paragraph at this level: 

⚫ may be incoherent 

⚫ may be undeveloped 

may contain severe and persistent writing errors 

Score of 0: A paragraph will be rated 0 if it: 

contains no response 

⚫ 

⚫ 

merely copies the topic 

is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters 

=== THE END == 

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