Đề thi TS lớp 10 Tiếng Anh Hà Tĩnh 2025

Đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 Hà Tĩnh 2025 - 1

Tìm hiểu cấu trúc và tải xuống ngay Đề thi TS lớp 10 Tiếng Anh Hà Tĩnh 2025 có file PDF/Word kèm đáp án chi tiết tại bài viết.

Ngày 3/6/2025, hơn 16.400 thí sinh Hà Tĩnh chính thức bước vào kỳ thi lớp 10 với 3 môn Toán, Tiếng Anh, Ngữ văn tại 36 hội đồng thi.

Thông tin chung

  • Đơn vị tổ chức: Sở GD&ĐT Hà Tĩnh 
  • Kỳ thi: Tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT 
  • Môn: Tiếng Anh 
  • Năm học: 2025–2026 
  • Thời gian: 60 phút 
  • Số trang: 3

Cấu trúc đề thi

Cấu trúc đề thi Tiếng Anh tuyển sinh lớp 10 tỉnh Hà Tĩnh năm học 2025-2026 có 40 câu, chia làm 8 phần.

Phần 1 là hoàn thành đoạn văn 4 câu về buổi BBQ gia đình bằng cách điền từ vào chỗ trống. Phần 2 gồm 3 câu đọc hiểu ngắn về biển báo, quảng cáo, thông báo. Phần 3 kiểm tra ngữ pháp và từ vựng với 14 câu.

Phần 4 là điền từ vào đoạn văn 5 câu về tác dụng của giấc ngủ. Phần 5 và 6 gồm 2 câu hỏi về phát âm và trọng âm. Phần 7 là đọc hiểu 5 câu về rác thải điện tử tại Ghana. Cuối cùng, phần 8 gồm 5 câu viết lại câu với các dạng câu ước, câu gián tiếp, so sánh và cấu trúc đặc biệt.

Tải xuống tài liệu

Link tải Đề thi vào lớp 10 Tiếng Anh Hà Tĩnh 2025 (File PDF/Word)

Kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 là một bước ngoặt quan trọng, đánh dấu sự khởi đầu của một hành trình học tập mới. Với việc tìm hiểu kỹ cấu trúc đề thi và ôn luyện có kế hoạch, các em học sinh sẽ tự tin hơn để chinh phục mục tiêu của mình. Chúc các bạn thí sinh Hà Tĩnh tự tin và đạt kết quả tốt trong kỳ thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 năm 2026!

>> Tham khảo thêm: Đề thi năm 2024

Nội dung đề thi

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

HÀ TĨNH

(Đề thi gồm 03 trang, 40 câu)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT

NĂM HỌC 2025-2026

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Họ, tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………………………….. 

Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………………. 


Part 1. Complete the announcement with the given words in the box. Write the answers on your answer sheet. There are two EXTRA words.

notice fines play enjoy prepare games

Family BBQ Next Sunday!

“Greetings! This is a (1) __________ that our family BBQ is set for next Sunday. We will have delicious food, some fun (2) __________, and a chance to catch up with everyone. Please make sure to (3) __________ your favorite side dishes and drinks. We hope everyone will (4) __________ a great time!”

Part 2. Read the following short texts and write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer that goes with each text.

If you cannot attend the exam, inform your teacher beforehand. 5. Who is this message for?

A. Students who cannot take the exam

B. Students who are already in class

C. Students who already get the exam results

D. Teachers who are teaching the class


MUSIC CLUB

NEW MEMBERS MUST BE OVER 11 YEARS OLD TO JOIN 6. 

A. Only old members must be over 11 years old.

B. All members of the club are 11 years old.

C. People over 11 years old cannot join the club.

D. People under 11 years old cannot join the club.


Pizza Special

Price: £12

25% OFF EVERY FRIDAY 7. You __________.

A. pay £9 for a pizza on Monday

B. pay £9 for a pizza on Friday

C. can buy pizza for £12 every Friday

D. get 50% off pizza every Friday


Part 3. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

8. He __________ hard for the exam when his friends invited him out.

A. is studying B. was studying C. will study D. studies

9. My students decided __________ a field trip after the final test.

A. taking B. take C. to take D. took

10. I always go to the gym three times __________ week.

A. a B. the C. an D. Ø (no article)

11. If the weather is fine tomorrow, we __________ to the beach.

A. go B. went C. will go D. would go

12. – “Is this their new house?” – “Yes, it’s __________.”

A. they B. theirs C. their D. them

13. She didn’t buy the dress __________ it was too expensive.

A. because B. so C. although D. despite

14. The children are really fond __________ learning art and music classes.

A. to B. of C. on D. in

15. The instructions were quite __________, making it hard for everyone to follow.

A. legible B. apparent C. coherent D. vague

16. We can help to __________ the environment by reducing plastic waste.

A. protect B. pollute C. limit D. destroy

17. You should __________ early and do more exercise because it is good for your health.

A. look for B. get up C. turn on D. put off

18. My sister __________ shopping with her friends every Sunday.

A. plays B. has C. goes D. makes

19. Don’t go near the canal! It is very __________.

A. danger B. dangerous C. endanger D. dangerously

20. – Mary: “I think students should know how to use AI properly to assist their studying.”

– Peter: “__________ It’s a useful tool for them.”

A. That’s not true. B. I don’t agree. C. I totally agree. D. I have no idea.

21. – Nam: “Thank you very much for your nice gift.”

– Minh: “__________”

A. You’re welcome. B. Good idea. C. No, thanks. D. Yes, let’s.

Part 4. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Sleep expert Matthew Walker, (22) __________ leads the Center for Human Sleep Science at the University of California, Berkeley, and author of Why We Sleep, says that sleep is the best thing we can do to restore our (23) __________ and physical health each day. There is a strong link between the quality of sleep and a longer life. However, getting enough sleep is also important. Every person who sleeps less than six hours a night is likely harming their health. (24) __________, in an experiment conducted recently, people who didn’t get enough sleep regularly often felt dizzy and difficult to concentrate on their work.

For (25) __________ people, consistently getting eight hours of sleep improves memory, focus, creativity, and emotional balance. It also (26) __________ the immune system, boosts athletic performance, and lowers the risk of serious diseases like cancer and heart disease.

22. A. which B. whom C. who D. when

23. A. emotional B. mental C. social D. spiritual

24. A. However B. Therefore C. Consequently D. For example

25. A. every B. much C. many D. another

26. A. monitors B. affects C. examines D. strengthens

Part 5. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

27. A. break B. hear C. near D. dear

28. A. cake B. cook C. coat D. city

Part 6. Write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

29. A. listen B. open C. answer D. repeat

30. A. banana B. vacation C. engineer D. computer

Part 7. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Today, every home has electronic rubbish, or “e-rubbish”. This is old technology we don’t use anymore, like old TVs, printers, or mobile phones. When we throw away these items, we don’t often think about where they go.

A journalist, Peter Essick, wanted to learn more. He followed e-rubbish to different countries. He saw that a lot of e-rubbish goes to Ghana. In Ghana, old computers are sold in local markets. People there don’t usually fix the computers. Instead, they take them apart to get materials like copper and gold. But, melting these parts is dangerous for workers. It creates toxic chemicals.

After his journey, Peter Essick thinks we should stop sending e-rubbish to other countries. It’s bad for the environment and people’s health. He believes companies should make electronics that are easy to recycle and safe for everyone’s health.

31. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?

A. Selling Old Computers B. E-rubbish and Its Problems

C. E-rubbish Journey from Ghana D. Making Electronics Safer

32. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to__________.

A. TVs B. printers C. phones D. items

33. The word fix in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. repair B. use C. produce D. buy

34. Why is it dangerous for workers in Ghana when they get materials from old computers?

A. Melting parts makes toxic chemicals.

B. They might cut themselves.

C. The computers don’t work.

D. There is too much rubbish.

35. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. E-rubbish only goes to Ghana.

B. Peter Essick thinks we should make electronics easier to recycle.

C. Old electronics are safe to recycle everywhere.

D. People in Ghana sold old computers to local markets of other countries.

Part 8. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the provided sentence. Write the answers on your answer sheet.

36. I am sorry that I can’t go out with you tonight.

 I wish ________________________________________________________________________

37. “What are you doing in the room?” said my mother.

 My mother asked me ____________________________________________________________

38. I spend about 30 minutes cooking dinner for the whole family.

 It takes me ____________________________________________________________________

39. This project is more practical than that one.

 That project isn’t _______________________________________________________________

40. I don’t mind which color we will choose.

 It is of ________________________________________________________________________

———- THE END ———-

 

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

HÀ TĨNH

(Đề thi gồm 03 trang, 40 câu)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT

NĂM HỌC 2025-2026

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Họ, tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………………………….. 

Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………………. 

1. notice

2. games

3. prepare

4. enjoy

5. A

6. D

7. B

8. B

9. C

10. A

11. C

12. B

13. A

14. B

15. D

16. A

17. B

18. C

19. B

20. C

21. A

22. C

23. B

24. D

25. C

26. D

27. A

28. D

29. D

30. C

31. B

32. D

33. A

34. A

35. B

36. I wish I could go out with you tonight.

37. My mother asked me what I was doing in the room.

38. It takes me about 30 minutes to cook dinner for the whole family.

39. That project isn’t as practical as this one.

40. It is of no/little importance/consequence to me which color we will choose.