Tìm hiểu chi tiết đề thi môn Tiếng Anh, đáp án và hướng dẫn chấm cho đề thi chọn HSG lớp 10 THPT năm học 2023-2024 của Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo tỉnh Hải Dương. File nghe và transcripts có thể tải xuống tại bài viết.
1. Chủ trì và tổ chức kỳ thi
Kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 10 Trung học Phổ thông (THPT) cấp tỉnh năm học 2023-2024 đã diễn ra vào chiều ngày 5/4/2024, tại hai điểm trường:
- Trường THPT chuyên Nguyễn Trãi
- Trường THPT Hồng Quang
Các môn thi được tổ chức theo hình thức tự luận, trong đó môn Tiếng Anh áp dụng kết hợp giữa tự luận và trắc nghiệm, kiểm tra đồng thời kỹ năng nghe, đọc và viết.
>> Tương tự: Đề HSG Anh 10 Hà Tĩnh 2024
2. Nội dung đề thi môn Tiếng Anh – Phần Word Formation
Dưới đây là một số bài tập tiêu biểu và đáp án hướng dẫn:
41. He was caught trying to _______ a security guard. (PERSON)
Đáp án: impersonate (v) – mạo danh
Dịch nghĩa: Anh ta đã bị bắt khi cố gắng mạo danh một nhân viên an ninh.
42. The team gave a _______ performance and the fans jeered them off the field. (PITY)
Đáp án: pitiful (adj) ~ very poor – tệ hại
Dịch nghĩa: Đội bóng đã có một màn trình diễn tệ hại và người hâm mộ đã cười nhạo họ ra khỏi sân.
43. The United Nations will act as _______ of the peace settlement. (GUARANTEE)
Đáp án: guarantor (n) – người bảo lãnh
Dịch nghĩa: Liên Hợp Quốc sẽ đóng vai trò là người bảo lãnh cho hiệp định hòa bình.
44. Tests are often carried out to detect genetic _______ before birth. (NORMAL)
Đáp án: abnormalities (n) – bất thường
Dịch nghĩa: Các xét nghiệm thường được thực hiện để phát hiện những bất thường về di truyền trước khi sinh.
45. They never dare to leave their only child _______ for even a moment. (ATTEND)
Đáp án: unattended (adj) – không được chăm sóc/trông nom
Dịch nghĩa: Họ không bao giờ dám để con cái duy nhất của mình không được chăm sóc, dù chỉ một khoảnh khắc.
3. Cơ cấu giải thưởng
Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Hải Dương đã công nhận 711 học sinh đạt giải trong kỳ thi này, tăng 19 em so với năm học trước. Cụ thể, có 8 giải nhất, 109 giải nhì, 301 giải ba và 293 giải khuyến khích.
Kỳ thi chọn HSG lớp 10 THPT tỉnh Hải Dương năm học 2023-2024 không chỉ là dịp để phát hiện những tài năng học thuật xuất sắc mà còn là cơ hội để các trường, Sở Giáo dục đánh giá chất lượng giảng dạy và rút ra những kinh nghiệm quý báu cho các kỳ thi sau này.
Hãy tải xuống đề thi kèm file nghe tại đường dẫn dưới đây.
Tải xuống: Đề thi và đáp án chính thức
4. Nội dung đề thi
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HẢI DƯƠNG
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 12 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10 THPT
NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 05/4/2024
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
CHÚ Ý:
Thí sinh làm bài vào giấy thi này
Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án A, B, C, D
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu gì!)
A. LISTENING
Part 1. You will hear five short recordings. You will hear each recording twice. For each question, choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (5 points)
1. How did the man get to work?
A. by car B. by bike C. by bus D. by taxi
2. What will the girl buy?
A. bananas, grapes, cherries B. bananas, grapes, pears
C. bananas, pears, cherries D. bananas, apples, pears
3. What will the weather be like tomorrow night?
A. foggy B. sunny C. windy D. rainy
4. What will Ben do on Saturday afternoon?
A. play football B. go to the cinema C. go ice-skating D. cut the grass
5. What animal will they buy?
A. a fish B. a cat C. a dog D. a parrot
Part 2. Listen to the recording and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. You will hear each recording twice. (5 points)
You will hear an interview with a girl called Mara who started a book club at her school.
6. Mara thought of starting a school book club after _______.
A. she attended a book fair B. one of her parents suggested it
C. somebody at school told her about one D. she read about one online
7. What does Mara say about the club meeting?
A. They’re always led by one of her teachers. B. Students have to prepare answers to questions.
C. A different person picks the book for each one. D. It is organised weekly.
8. Mara thinks it’s better if the club reads books which _______.
A. everybody in the group has heard of B. no one in the group has read
C. somebody in the group knows and loves D. are available in the school library
9. Mara says that if some members don’t like a book, _______.
A. it can make the meetings more interesting B. then they don’t have to finish reading it
C. she tries to change their mind D. it is difficult to continue the meeting
10. Mara enjoys it most when members of the book club _______.
A. get in touch with the author of the book B. share ideas for stories of their own
C. watch a film based on the book they are reading D. work together on a project
Part 3. For each question, write the correct answer in the gap. Write ONE or TWO WORDS or a NUMBER or a DATE or a TIME. You will hear each recording twice. (5 points)
You will hear a boy called Josh giving a presentation about quad biking.
Quad biking
Josh says that the size of the quad bike’s (11) _______ is the best thing about it.
Josh spent (12) _______ learning how to drive the quad bike safely.
For Josh, driving through a (13) _______ was the most challenging part of the session.
Josh was pleased that the weather was (14) _______ on the day he went.
The quad biking centre is on the road that goes to the (15) _______.
To book a session, go online at www.whitlocks.com
Part 4. Listen to the recording and decide whether each of the statements below is True or False. You will hear the recording twice. (5 points)
You will hear an interview with a boy called Sam Wilson who collects film figurines, which are small plastic models of film characters.
16. Sam understood what he was told about his grandfather’s collection of postage stamps.
17. Sam began his collection of figurines after receiving one as a gift.
18. For Sam, the fun of collecting figurines comes from having a display of them at home.
19. Sam prefers to collect used figurines because he likes to imagine where they came from.
20. Sam thinks not many people have admired his favorite figure.
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY
Part 1. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following sentences. (10 points)
21. It is necessary that he _______ of his old parents.
A. takes care B. to take care C. take care D. took care
22. At first, I was opposed to the idea, but after I had seen the research, I _______ that the project was a good one.
A. must have agreed B. would have agreed C. ought to agree D. had to agree
23. Having been delayed by heavy traffic, _______.
A. it was difficult for her to arrive on time B. her being late was intolerable
C. she was unable to arrive on time D. it was impossible for her to arrive on time
24. Only when _______ may vehicles cross the train tracks.
A. the green light is on B. is the green light on
C. did the green light be on D. on is the green light
25. Throughout the animal kingdom, _______ bigger than the elephant.
A. whale is only the B. only whale is the C. is the whale only D. only the whale is
26. It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by _______ their mistakes.
A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing
27. The school drama club is _______ a play for the school’s anniversary, which is due to take place next month.
A. turning up B. making off C. putting on D. bringing down
28. Mike managed to _______ a couple of hours’ sleep on the planet.
A. pass B. grab C. put D. pay
29. We did our best to fix the broken computer but our efforts bore no _______.
A. success B. end C. luck D. fruit
30. Jacques launched into a _______ explanation that left us just as confused as before.
A. far-fetched B. nerve-wrecking C. long-winded D. far-reaching
Part 2. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. (5 points)
31. He is in the envious position of having two job offers to choose from.
A. in B. envious C. offers D. from
32. What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and policemen who had been laid off from their jobs.
A. including B. What happened C. were D. their jobs
33. I should have listened to my father’s wise council, and saved some money instead of spending it all.
A. have listened B. council C. saved D. it
34. The volunteers went to a nearby school on a Sunday morning, picked up a food package, and delivered them to an elderly person.
A. went B. on C. and D. them
35. The discovery of the magnetic effects of coils made possible to measure an electric current.
A. discovery B. magnetic C. made possible D. electric current
Part 3. Choose the word/ phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)/ phrase in the following questions. (3 points)
36. Those who transgress the laws of society will be punished.
A. disagree with B. disperse C. violate D. interfere
37. She watched the girl’s expression closely, trying to decipher her meaning.
A. encode B. understand C. imagine D. draw
38. The parents of that girl are up in arms about her expulsion.
A. angry at B. satisfied with C. terrified with D. delighted at
Part 4. Choose the word/ phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)/ phrase in the following questions. (2 points)
39. She supplements her meagre income by cleaning at night.
A. extravagant B. abundant C. paltry D. prosperous
40. The new sweater collection is so popular with teenagers all over the world that the manufacturer is making money hand over fist.
A. making a lot of profit at a very fast pace B. making only a little money
C. making more sweaters in the future D. making more hand products
Part 5. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (5 points)
41. He was caught trying to _______ a security guard. (PERSON)
42. The team gave a _______ performance and the fans jeered them off the field. (PITY)
43. The United Nations will act as _______ of the peace settlement. (GUARANTEE)
44. Tests are often carried out to detect genetic _______ before birth. (NORMAL)
45. They never dare to leave their only child _______ for even a moment. (ATTEND)
C. READING
Part 1. There are FIVE blanks in the passage below. From the phrases/ sentences (A – G) in the box, choose the most suitable for each blank. There are TWO EXTRA options that you DO NOT need to use. (5 points)
A. seeing the best attractions
B. Since then, she has spent more than 6,500 hours under water
C. she realizes the importance it plays in our diets
D. that is being done to the world’s oceans.
E. wondering what it must be like under the surface.
F. Before she started her trip
G. The team spent two weeks in an underwater “house”
Sylvia Earle, underwater hero
She has spent her working file studying the world’s oceans
Sylvia Earle is an underwater explorer and marine biologist who was born in the USA in 1935. She became interested in the world’s oceans from an early age. As a child, she liked to stand on the beach for hours and look at the sea, (46) _______.
When she was sixteen, she finally got a chance to make her first dive. It was this dive that inspired her to become an underwater explorer. (47) _______, and has led more than seventy expeditions worldwide. She has also made the deepest dive ever, reaching a record-breaking depth of 381 meters.
In 1970, she became famous around the world when she became the captain of the first all-female team to live under water. (48) _______. The research they carried out showed the damage that pollution was causing to marine life, and especially to coral reefs. Her team also studied the problem of over-fishing. Fishing methods meant that people were catching too many fish, Earle warned, and many species were in danger of becoming extinct.
Since then she has written several books and magazine articles in which she suggests ways of reducing the damage (49) _______. One way, she believes, is to rely on fish farms for seafood, and reduce the amount of fishing that is done out at sea. Although she no longer eats seafood herself, (50) _______. It would be wrong to tell people they should stop eating fish from the sea, she says. However, they need to reduce the impact they are having on the ocean’s supplies.
Part 2. Read the following text and choose the best heading from the list (A – G) for each paragraph. There are TWO extra headings which you do not need to use. (5 points)
List of headings
A. The impact the railway line had on Siberia
B. The reasons why peasants migrated to Siberia
C. The construction of the line
D. The speed and style of the train
E. The controversy which surrounded the building of the line
F. The role of prisoners and soldiers in the building of the project
G. The attraction of the Trans-Siberian Railway
THE TRANS-SIBERIAN RAILWAY
51. _______
The Trans-Siberian Railway has been described by some as the most memorable journey on Earth. Measuring nearly 9,300 km, it is the longest railway line in the world and takes approximately a week to complete. It is one incredible train journey from Red Square to the Great Wall, taking in Siberia, Mongolia, the Gobi Desert and arriving in the great city of Beijing. The journey has captured the imagination of travelers from far and wide since construction began in 1891.
52. _______
Although officials have been building this line since 1891, it is still being expanded today. The original Trans-Siberian Railway was built from Moscow to Vladivostok on the orders to Tsar Alexander III. Building the line wasn’t easy task as there were only a few qualified engineers and the difficult climate often slowed progress. A lack of workmen meant that soldiers and convicts had to be conscripted to help. Up to 90,000 men were employed in its construction.
53. _______
From the moment building began, the project faced many difficulties. Even though it was considered a technological marvel at the time, there were arguments about the quality of work. Rails were considered too light and bridges not strong enough. Many claimed convicts had sabotaged the line. Furthermore, the project also caused serious problems for the Russian economy.
54. _______
Despite criticisms, however, the railway more than paid for itself in the twentieth century. The Siberian economy exploded when 2.5 million poor people moved there from European Russia between 1895 and 1916. The region quickly became famous for producing bread and butter. Without the Trans-Siberian Railway, Siberia’s industrial revolution would not have happened.
55. _______
Today, this service is used by both tourists and workers. Running at an average speed of 60 km/h, it is not designed for anyone in a hurry. Nor are the trains particularly glamorous. The trip could never be described as dull, however, with breathtaking views from the carriage window and the opportunity to talk to fellow passengers.
Part 3. Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each of the following questions. (10 points)
BURIED TREASURE
Artist Kit Williams was always interested in trying new things, so when it was suggested that he should illustrate a book, he preferred to write his own story rather than work with someone else’s. He hit (56) _______ a new idea . What better way to attract people’s (57) _______ to his work than to give his readers the chance to take part in a treasure hunt? So Kit made a golden pendant in the (58) _______ of a hare and buried it underground at a secret location. The words and pictures in his book, Masquerade, (59) _______ clues as to where the hare was buried. (60) _______ two million readers from all over the world joined in the rush to solve the puzzle. The race was open to all, and no one had any advantage – the treasure was as (61) _______ to be found by a clever child of ten as it was by a university professor. After more than two years, the golden hare was found by a businessman (62) _______ called himself Ken Thomas, although this was actually a false name. It appears that “Thomas” (63) _______ sold the hare for a large sum of money. Afterwards some people (64) _______ that the discovery of the hare was not based purely on the information in the book, but was the result of a complex plot in which “Thomas” was helped by a former girlfriend of Kit Williams. (65) _______, “Thomas” has always firmly denied these claims.
56. A. at B. off C. upon D. in
57. A. interest B. attention C. eyes D. curiosity
58. A. appearance B. pattern C. shape D. figure
59. A. provided B. identified C. made D. supported
60. A. At most B. Mostly C. Most D. Almost
61. A. unlikely B. unlike C. alike D. likely
62. A. which B. who C. whose D. whom
63. A. subsequently B. considerately C. absolutely D. formerly
64. A. threatened B. charged C. accused D. claimed
65. A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. However D. Also
Part 4. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. (10 points)
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity- horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks – but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers”. During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the water
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
67. The word conserve in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
68. Ptarmigans keep warm in the winter by _______.
A. huddling together on the ground with other birds B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation D. digging tunnels into the snow
69. The word magnified in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
70. The author mentions kinglets in paragraph 1 as an example of birds that _______.
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth D. usually feed and nest in pairs
71. The word forage in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fly B. assemble C. feed D. rest
72. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
A. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
B. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
C. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
D. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
73. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
74. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
75. The word they in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. predators D. trees
D. WRITING
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (3 points)
76. She left without saying goodbye as she didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
-> Rather than _____________________________________________________________________________
77. It was careless of her to allow her 12-year-old son to ride her motorbike.
-> She should ______________________________________________________________________________
78. People became aware of the damage to the ozone layer when an enormous hole was discovered over the South Pole.
-> It was the _______________________________________________________________________________
Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences, using the exact words in the brackets. Change other words in the sentence if necessary. (2 points)
79. Lying on the beach all day is an unusual experience for me. (USED)
-> _______________________________________________________________________________________
80. No one knows why Malcolm suddenly left the country. (PROMPTED)
-> No one knows _________________________________________________________________ the country.
Part 3. Letter writing (5 points)
Below is a part of a letter you received from an English friend, Ellen.
“As a part of a school project, I have to write about a city which people often visit: I’d like to write about a city in your country. Can you suggest one?”
Write a letter of 120 words, replying to Ellen.
In your letter, you should answer the questions:
– Which time of year is the most popular with tourists?
– What is the city like?
– What can tourists do there?
You are required to BEGIN and END your mail as followed.
Dear Ellen,
Yours,
Thu Huong
Part 4. Essay writing (15 points)
Write an essay of 200 – 250 words about the following topic:
Some people think that teenagers should do unpaid work in their free time to help the local community because this is beneficial to both the individual teenagers and society as a whole.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
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