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Ngoài ra, website còn cập nhật liên tục các đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi mới nhất lớp 6, 7, 8, 9 THCS giúp các em làm quen với nhiều dạng bài tập và nâng cao khả năng làm bài thi.
- Đề thi môn Tiếng Anh khối 7 tại phòng GD&ĐT Quảng Xương có tổng cộng 5 trang và thời gian làm bài quy định là 120 phút. Có các nội dung chính sau:
Section A: Listening (10 points)
Part 1: Answer multiple-choice questions (5 points).
Part 2: Fill in the gaps (5 points).
Section B: Phonetics (5 points)
Part 1: Identify words with different pronunciation (3 points).
Part 2: Identify words with different stress patterns (2 points).
Section C: Vocabulary, Grammar, and Structures (30 points)
Part 1: Complete sentences with the correct words or phrases (15 points).
Part 2: Supply correct verb forms (7 points).
Part 3: Use correct word forms (8 points).
Part 4: Find and correct mistakes in sentences (5 points).
Section D: Reading (30 points)
Part 1: Fill in gaps with words from a given box (10 points).
Part 2: Complete a passage with appropriate options (10 points).
Part 3: Fill in the blanks with suitable words (5 points).
Part 4: Answer comprehension questions (5 points).
Section E: Writing (20 points)
Part 1: Rewrite sentences without changing the meaning (5 points).
Part 2: Rewrite sentences using the given words (5 points).
Part 3: Write a short paragraph on the benefits of regular exercise (10 points).
Total: 100 points
End of Exam

Đề giao lưu HSG Tiếng Anh 7 cấp huyện, Quảng Xương - 1

Đề giao lưu HSG Tiếng Anh 7 cấp huyện, Quảng Xương - 2

Đề giao lưu HSG Tiếng Anh 7 cấp huyện, Quảng Xương - 3

Đề giao lưu HSG Tiếng Anh 7 cấp huyện, Quảng Xương - 4

Đề giao lưu HSG Tiếng Anh 7 cấp huyện, Quảng Xương - 5
Các dạng bài tập trong đề giao lưu học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh
Bài thi tập trung vào việc đánh giá khả năng vận dụng các cấu trúc ngữ pháp như: subject-verb agreement, reported speech, tenses, passive voice, gerunds and infinitives, comparative and superlative forms, conditional sentences, question tags, articles, prepositions, adjective order.
Bên cạnh đó, bài thi còn kiểm tra khả năng nhận biết và sửa lỗi sai về grammar mistakes và word formation.
Qua các chủ đề như du lịch, nhà cửa, học sinh được rèn luyện khả năng nghe, nói, đọc, viết và sử dụng tiếng Anh trong các tình huống cụ thể.
Tải xuống: đề thi + đáp án + file nghe + transcripts
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Trích dẫn đề thi
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN QUẢNG XƯƠNG
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
ĐỀ GIAO LƯU THÀNH VIÊN XUẤT SẮC CLB
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7
NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
SECTION A. LISTENING (10 points)
I. Listen to Nuala talking to Sean about a recent travel experience and then choose the correct answer for questions 1-5 (5 points).
1. Nuala’s flight was at __________.
A. 12:00 B. 12:30 C. 7:00
2. Nuala was too late to get __________.
A. the metro to the city B. the bus to the airport C. a taxi to the airport
3. Nuala __________.
A. stayed in the city B. went back to her friend’s C. went to a hotel
4. During that night, Nuala __________.
A. watched TV B. read magazines and newspapers C. got a bit of sleep
5. Nuala waited at the airport for __________.
A. five hours B. nine hours C. four hours
II. Listen and fill in the gaps. (5 points)
Johnson’s Estate Agency
For Rent: Large, attractive house in the city (0) centre.
Address: 342 (6) __________ Lane
Upstairs: 3 spacious bedrooms, (7) __________, study
Downstairs: (8) __________ kitchen, comfortable living room, dining room, small bathroom
Outside: Large garden, (9) __________
Rent: £500 per month
Contact: Mr Weston
Tel. (10) __________
SECTION B: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose part underlined is pronounced differently from the others in each group (3 points).
11. A. island B. biogas C. bookstore D. festive
12. A. noodles B. food C. cook D. spoon
13. A. looked B. learned C. washed D. laughed
SECTION C: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence (15 points).
14. A. explore B. cartoon C. hotel D. absence
15. A. dangerous B. enormous C. plentiful D. energy
SECTION C: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence (15 points).
16. I didn’t see the end of the movies last night because I __________ asleep.
A. felt B. fell C. went D. felled
17. She hardly goes to school late and __________.
A. so do I B. neither I do C. I don’t too D. Neither do I
18. Everyone has to follow this way to get into the fair, __________?
A. do they B. don’t they C. has they D. hasn’t they
19. The old man owns a __________ coffee table.
A. beautiful round old B. beautiful old round C. old round beautiful D. round old beautiful
20. My friends agreed to come to the festival __________ from Thomas.
A. apart B. only C. except D. accept
21. These vegetables don’t taste __________ to us.
A. well B. fresh C. freshly D. deliciously
22. Alice asks Mary’s opinion about driving to the countryside at the weekend.
- Alice: “How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?”
- Mary: “__________”
A. Never mind. B. Not at all. C. No, thanks. D. That’s a good idea.
23. The shirts here are __________ more expensive than those at the bookshop on the corner.
A. very B. quite C. extremely D. much
24. We were __________ with the latest film of that director.
A. satisfy B. satisfying C. satisfactory D. satisfied
25. Mozart was one of the most famous __________ of classical music.
A. actors B. composers C. artists D. makers
26. All the boys are good at cooking, but __________ is as good as the girls.
A. either B. neither C. every D. none
27. __________ having a happy ending, the film begins with a terrible disaster.
A. Despite of B. Although C. In spite of D. Because of
28. Some people are used to __________ in crowded buses and don’t mind it at all.
A. riding B. ride C. rode D. to ride
29. We couldn’t help __________ when he told us what had happened.
A. laugh B. to laugh C. to be laughing D. laughing
30. In the future we will rely more __________ renewable energy sources.
A. in B. on C. for D. with
II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets (7 points).
31. We’d rather you (take) __________ part in volunteer work to help our community.
32. Daddy, could you tell me how (run) __________ this washing machine?
33. Why you (not go) __________ to the party last night?
34. A new supermarket (build) __________ near our school now.
35. She gets fat because she is always tasting things while she (cook) __________.
36. Sad movies often make me (cry) __________ a lot.
37. Nam, together with his friends, hardly (get) __________ bad marks.
III. Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences (8 points).
38. We must remember to eat __________. (SENSE)
39. A balanced diet alone is not enough for a healthy __________. (LIFE)
40. It is unsafe and __________ to pass another vehicle on the right. (LEGAL)
41. One of the __________ of solar energy is that it can be expensive to buy solar panels. (ADVANTAGE)
42. Her father always __________ her to study well. (COURAGE)
43. You mustn’t drive __________ on busy streets. (CARE)
44. Coal, oil, natural gas is __________ sources. (NEW)
45. My brother wants to become a __________. (HISTORY)
IV. Find a mistake in each sentence and correct it (5 points).
46. Before donate a book, make sure that it is in good condition.
A. donate B. sure C. is D. condition
47. Vy is the more intelligent student in our class.
A. the B. more C. in D. class
48. Getting enough sleep every night help us stay healthy and energetic.
A. Getting B. sleep C. help D. energetic
49. Lan always rides her bike to work, but today she catches the bus.
A. always B. to C. but D. catches
50. No matter how intelligence he is, he can’t solve this difficult problem.
A. No B. intelligence C. is D. difficult
SECTION D: READING
I. Read and complete the passage by filling in each gap with one word/phrase from the box (10 points).
has to is teaching cover teacher more and high decided
Foreign English language teachers for schools in Vietnam
Vietnam (51) __________ well on its way to integrate with the world and for that reason emphasis on English language skills (52) __________ become very essential.
Recently, the City Department of Education and Training (53) __________ to recruit foreign native English speakers to teach in elementary, middle and (54) __________ schools in Vietnam. The policy calls for social contributions to improve English language (55) __________ from primary schools to senior high schools by employing only foreign native English teachers. Each student will chip in VND 120,000 ($5.8) a month to (56) __________ the $35 an hour salary of the foreign (57) __________.
Compared (58) __________ traditional English teaching methodology, it is better that thousands of students in the city have a chance of practicing listening (59) __________ speaking skills with native English speakers, who create a (60) __________ exciting atmosphere in classrooms for students.
II. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following passage (10 points).
The world’s first film was shown in 1895 by two French brothers, Louis and Auguste Lumiere. Although it only (61) __________ of short, simple scenes, people loved it and films have (62) __________ popular ever since. The first films were silent, with titles on the screen to (63) __________ the story.
Soon the public had (64) __________ favorite actors and actresses and in this (65) __________, the first film stars appeared. In 1927, the first “talkie”, a film with sound, was shown and from then on, the public (66) __________ only accept this kind of film.
Further improvements continued, particularly in America, (67) __________ produced 95% of all films. With the arrival of television in the 1950s, (68) __________ people went to see films, but in (69) __________ years, cinema audiences have grown again. More countries have started to produce films that influence film-making and there are currently (70) __________ national film industries.
61. A. consisted B. contained C. belonged D. held
62. A. gone B. been C. made D. kept
63. A. join B. read C. explain D. perform
64. A. your B. his C. our D. their
65. A. reason B. way C. method D. result
66. A. should B. would C. might D. will
67. A. who B. where C. when D. which
68. A. other B. each C. fewer D. any
69. A. recent B. now C. modern D. present
70. A. many B. lots C. much D. plenty
III. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (5 points)
Music – What is it?
Can you think of a day without music? “Oh, that’s not possible!” you may say. Yes, you are right. There is music everywhere: at home, in a concert hall, in parks, at the seaside and even in the forest. But in the forest, of (71) __________, it is better to listen to birds (72) __________ and other natural sounds like the wind in the trees. People cannot live (73) __________ music. They listen to music, they dance to music, they learn to play musical instruments.
Musical education at school is very important. There is special literature for music teachers and for all people who are (74) __________ in it.
But what is music?
Specialists explain it very well, and we can understand everything, especially if music is performed to illustrate their talks. Music isn’t a combination of pleasant sounds only. It is an art that (75) __________ life. Music reflects people’s ideas and emotions.
IV. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). (5 points)
Blood donation: The most valued service to mankind
Millions of people owe their lives to people whom they will never know or meet in their lifetime. They are none other than those people who have donated their blood freely and without any reward - voluntary blood donors. Voluntary unpaid donors are the foundation of a safe blood supply which saves millions of human beings from death.
Nothing is comparable to the preciousness of human blood. In spite of the rapid and remarkable conquests of medical science today, there is no laboratory that manufactures blood. It is only in human beings that human blood is made and circulated. For those who require blood to save their lives, sharing from other people is the only means. Therefore, voluntary donation is the only way of accumulating blood at safe storage to meet emergency requirements for saving lives. Blood is required for treatment of accidental injuries, burns... In times of accidental injuries that shed huge amounts of blood and also in various types of surgical operations for medical treatments, we require blood for transfusion. The unavailability of blood may cost lives. Therefore, the importance of blood donation is tremendous. This is the greatest gift one can give to humans. Voluntary blood donors are saviors of mankind. If someone really loves oneself and other fellow beings, the only way to express it is to donate blood voluntarily.
Blood donation is harmless and safe in the body. Rather, it is a social responsibility. The donor is donating for it as it will be used in saving the lives of his fellow beings. He himself may use the same during his own need. So, today’s donor may be tomorrow’s recipient. Without their humane gifts of noble donors, that also from the heart, many lives might have lost for want of blood. Therefore, the most generous and biggest ever contribution to mankind is blood donation.
76. The passage is mainly about __________.
A. voluntary blood donors B. human blood
C. blood donation D. safe blood supply
77. Who are the voluntary blood donors?
A. People donate blood and receive some money.
B. People donate blood and receive nothing.
C. People donate blood and receive rewards.
D. People donate blood and do it for fun.
77. The word “those” can be __________.
A. People in need of blood to save their life.
B. People donate their blood in need of money.
C. People donate their blood in need of sharing their kindness.
D. People sell their blood.
79. Who needs to be transfused blood?
A. patients B. donors C. nurses D. surgeons
80. Why should everyone donate blood according to the writer’s opinion?
A. Donate blood because it’s easy.
B. Donate blood because it’s generous and harmless to the body.
C. Donate blood because it’s a nice action, and harmless to the body.
D. Donate blood because it can help everyone earn more.
SECTION E: WRITING
I. Rewrite these sentences in such a way that the sentences you write remain unchanged from the original ones. (5 points)
81. Because of being tired, I couldn’t go camping with my class.
=> Because ________________________________________________________________________________
82. Peter spent 3 hours repairing his computer.
=> It took _________________________________________________________________________________
83. If you listened carefully, you would know more about it.
=> Were __________________________________________________________________________________
84. In spite of high prices, my daughter insists on going to the movies
=> Although _______________________________________________________________________________
85. We have never heard such an impressive song.
=> This is _________________________________________________________________________________
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the given word. (5 points)
86. They began writing emails to each other last year. (WRITTEN)
=> They __________________________________________________________________________________
87. Somebody repaired his car yesterday. (HAD)
=> He ____________________________________________________________________________________
88. “Why do you want to learn English?” Liz asked Hoa. (WONDERED)
=> Liz ____________________________________________________________________________________
89. My sister is not intelligent and I am not intelligent. (NEITHER)
=> Neither _________________________________________________________________________________
90. It’s difficult for me to learn English. (DIFFICULTY)
=> I have __________________________________________________________________________________
III. Write a short paragraph (about 120-150 words) about the benefits of doing exercise regularly. (10 points)
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